Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-20 Thread Steven Green
For those who are interested in this issue, I have written an amicus 
brief for the McCreary case (with the valuable assistance of Paul 
Finkelman) that argues against a close connection between American law 
and the 10 Commandments.  If you would seriously consider signing on to 
such a brief (on behalf of historians and law scholars) and would like 
to see a draft, please let me know:  [EMAIL PROTECTED]

By the way, my article in the JLR is based on research from my 
dissertation which pre-dated my association with Americans United.

--
Steven K. Green, J.D., Ph.D.
Associate Professor
Director, Center for Law and Government
Willamette University College of Law
245 Winter St., SE
Salem, OR 97301
503-370-6732
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Divine source, perhaps, but certainly not the God of the Bible, but rather a diestic creator or nature's God.  

Paul FInkelman
Quoting Francis Beckwith [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

Very good questions. I think one could teach the logic of the
Declaration
without saying that it is true.  For example, I frequently
lecture on
thinkers and arguments that I don't think are correct, but I
do so because I
would not be a virtuous teacher.  On the other hand, it may be
that some
religious beliefs are more consistent with a just regime than
others. For
example, from your perspective a religion that taught its
adherents that the
state should teach in its schools the true religion would be a
religion that
is mistaken about the nature of the state.
Frank
On 12/18/04 3:23 PM, Ed Brayton [EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:

Francis Beckwith wrote:

The declaration says three things about rights:
1. That they are self-evident
2. That they are inalienable
3. That they have divine source
So, Ed seems to be suggesting that we jettison teaching the
third because
there is no principled way to teach it with out implying
the falsity of
other takes on God and rights.  But, as you know, there are
many who
challenge the inalienability and self-evidence of rights
precisely on the
grounds that if rights have these non-material properties,
it seems that
some form of non-naturalism must be the case and theism is
a form of
non-naturalism.  So, there's good reason to ignore 1 and 2
as well since it
may lead one to think that theism has a lot more going for
it in grounding
rights than let's say materialism.
I'm not suggesting that we not teach that this is the
philosophy behind
the Declaration, I'm just saying that if we allow teachers
to advocate
that the theological position is true, how do we prevent
them from
advocating any other theological position? If we cannot do
so, then
we'll have quite a mess on our hands as Muslim teachers
teach their
students that the Quran is true, for instance, or atheist
teachers teach
that the bible is false. From a practical standpoint, this
clearly isn't
workable, but at the same time you cannot constitutionally
say that we
will allow teachers to teach some theological positions but
not others.
How would you address that question, which was at the core
of what I said?
Ed Brayton
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Paul Finkelman
Chapman Distinguished Professor of Law
Univ. of Tulsa College of Law
2120 East 4th Place
Tulsa OK  74104-3189
Phone: 918-631-3706
Fax:918-631-2194
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Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-20 Thread Paul Finkelman
To the best of my knowledge that Court has never cited the TenC as legal 
 authority for anything.  On the other hand, I don't know any serious 
scholar who would deny that the 10 C have influenced American law. 
The issue is HOW MUCH influence.  Chief Justice Moore asserted it was 
the moral foundation of American law and thus a monumnet with the 10 C 
on would not violate the establishment clause because it was a monument 
to the historical foundation of our law.  That is a very diffent claim 
than the very narrow one that the Ten C have influenced American law.

I cannot comprehend how Mr. New can conclude that Monotheism is the 
moral foundation for Western ideas of fundamental human rights and 
freedoms. Given the sheer number of people slaughtered in the name of 
God by Western Europeans, it is hard to imagine what human rights stem 
from monotheism and western society. And as for freedoms we might 
recall the Crusades with the murdering of Jews throughout Europe and the 
attacks on Moslems in the Middle East, England expelling all of its Jews 
in the 13th century, the Inquisition and the cleansing of Spain of Jews 
and Moslems, the Revocation of the Edict of Nantes (1685) and the 
slaughter of French Protestants, the 30 years war with the mudering of 
hundreds of thousands of Protestants and Catholics, the pogroms of 
Eastern Europe, the Spanish destruction of native cultures in the New 
World, and countless other examples of how monotheism in the Western 
World has led, not to human rights, but to the slaughter of millions and 
millions.

The worst tyrants of Europe were all devout monotheists.  One also 
recalls the countless Protestant ministers in this country who defended 
slavery with the Bible and the Church, arguing that God ordained blacks 
to the be slaves of whites and that slavery was justified because it 
brought Christianity (Monotheism) to the heathens of Africa.

Finally, neither the Ten C nor the rest of the Pentatuch teaches 
democracy or self-government. On the contrary, the Bible claims that law 
 comes from God, not from the consent of the governed.  Thus, for 
centuries monotheists extolled the powers and virtues of Kings who held 
their thrones by divine rights.

Human rights was the invention of the age of Englightenment -- men like 
Voltaire, Paine, Jefferson, and Franklin -- and the rejection of 
religion as the basis for political society.

Paul Finkelman
--
Paul Finkelman
Chapman Distinguished Professor
University of Tulsa College of Law
3120 East 4th Place
Tulsa, Oklahoma  74104-2499
918-631-3706 (office)
918-631-2194 (fax)
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
David W. New wrote:
Even the U.S. Supreme Court acknowledges that the Ten Commandments have
influenced American law.  See McGowan v.  Maryland, 366 U.S. at 462.  The
influence of the Ten Commandments on our laws goes far deeper than the body
of American law itself.  The most important influence of the Ten
Commandments concerns the nature of God and its impact on human rights.  The
Ten Commandments teach monotheism.  Monotheism is the moral foundation for
Western ideas of fundamental human rights and freedoms.  Our concept of
Equal Justice Under Law can be traced directly to the view that God is
One.  The belief in human equality is strictly a religious concept, it did
not originate from secularism.  Monotheism pervades American culture
including our laws to such an extent that it is impossible to escape its
influence.  Virtually, everyone participating in this discussion thinks like
a monotheist, whether they are conscious of it or not.  Even atheists who
deny the existence of God think like monotheism albeit unknowingly.  I am
reluctant to recommend a publication since I wrote it.  But my publication
is about the way monotheism and the Ten Commandments influenced Western law
and culture.  Feel free to read the Table of Contents at
www.mytencommandments.us
David W.  New
Attorney at Law
Washington, D.C.
202-333-2678.
- Original Message - 
From: Steven Green [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Monday, December 20, 2004 2:31 PM
Subject: Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the
Anglo-Americanlegal system?


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Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-18 Thread JMHACLJ
In a message dated 12/17/2004 11:31:37 PM Eastern Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

Surely, an exhaustive anthropology should reach back into those primitive societies that survived because they embraced such rules as no killing, no stealing, etc. 

Well, I wonder about this. 

Why should an anthropology of angles and saxons rely upon developments of neolithic cultures in the pacific rim? And what of the cultures that survived because they adopted the no killing us, no stealing from us, versions of these rules. 

If you visit Washington, DC, take the public tour of the Supreme Court building. If the docent does not proffer an explanation, inquire about those tables, centered over the Chief's head, that are numbered from 1 through 10: "Are those the Ten Commandments?" If you do, this is the reply you will get: "Actually, although numbered 1 through 10, those tables are intended by the artists to remind us of the moral codes common to all early societies."

That "interpretation" avoids complications that the ACLU might raise with the Court if the stock answer was that the tables represented the Ten Commandments and that the position of them above the Court and at the center of the bench symbolically acknowledge the superiority of God's law over man's and the centrality of God's law to the resolution of disputes over man's law. But that raises lots of issues about what moral code was common to all early societies, and how limited the code would have to be in order to reach across the boundaries of varied early cultures, etc.

Jim Henderson
Senior Counsel
ACLJ
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Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-18 Thread Ed Brayton
Richard Dougherty wrote:
My question is a simple one, I think: regardless of the facts of this case, do 
you think it is unconstitutional to teach the Declaration of Independence -- 
that is, not as a historical document, but as if it were true, and that it is 
legitimate to tell students that it is true?  The problem, of course, is with 
the multiple references to God in the document.  Is it a violation of the First 
Amendment, say, to tell students that many (some?) of the colonists thought 
that God was the source of our rights, and that they were right about that?  Or 
do we avoid First Amendment problems only by saying that many of them perhaps 
thought that God was the source of our rights, but then abstain from making any 
suggestions about whether that is in fact right?
I think we certainly should teach that those who wrote the Declaration 
believed that rights were something we were endowed with by a creator. 
To teach anything else would be a lie. But no, I do not think that a 
teacher should then go on to say, And they were right about that. To 
do that is to endorse a religious position. It is also a statement that 
we can't really know is true or not, as opposed to the historical 
question of what they believed to be true, which we can give a solid 
empirical answer to.

And I'd go a step further than that and say that if teachers are going 
to discuss the religious views of the men who wrote the Declaration in 
any detail, they should make it clear that what there were major 
differences among them regarding the nature of the Creator, because that 
too is true and verifiable. One of the problems that is quite common in 
discussion of the founding fathers in general, and especially in this 
area, is that of oversimplification. To pretend that they all meant the 
same thing by creator or nature's god is, again, to teach something 
that simply isn't true. Jefferson's conception of God differed wildly 
from Patrick Henry's, which differed from Ben Franklin's, which differed 
from George Washington's. Most people see the broadly deistic language 
in the Declaration and, because they haven't read anything further about 
the founders' views, presume that it refers to the Christian God. But 
for many of the founders, it clearly did not (though for most, I think 
it did). Again, we should teach what is true and verifiable, which is 
that the fight for independence and the founding of America was achieved 
by a mixture of orthodox Christians and Enlightenment-inspired deists 
and unitarians who often disagreed greatly on religious matters (and on 
other matters, of course). Hence, most historical scholars view the 
language in the Declaration to be a sort of lowest common denominator 
reference, one which could satisfy both sides in this sometimes-tense 
compromise.

More later when I return home.
Ed Brayton
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Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-18 Thread RJLipkin




In a message dated 12/18/2004 9:09:47 AM Eastern Standard Time, 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
Why 
  should an anthropology of angles and saxons rely upon developments of 
  neolithic cultures in the pacific rim? And what of the cultures that 
  survived because they adopted the no killing us, no stealing from us, versions 
  of these rules. 
Oh, because often the claim 
that American law is based on religion is offered as an explanation and 
justification of religion's salience in American society. In other words, the 
claim is that were it not for religion, society would consist of a war of all 
against all.Consequently, if anthropology reveals that those pre-religious 
societiesor those pre-Judeo-Christian societies also had laws against 
murder, theft, and forth, or if anthropology shows that only societies that have 
such rules survive, then some of the importance of religion as the groundwork of 
morality in American society is undercut. The claim that morality derives from 
and is justified bythe Ten Commandments, or some other 
Judeo-Christiantext cannot be sustained if anthropology reveals that prior 
secular societies or priornon-Judeo-Christian societies had the same or 
similar rules for governing social life.

Bobby


Robert Justin 
LipkinProfessor of LawWidener University School of 
LawDelaware
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Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-18 Thread RJLipkin





In a message dated 12/18/2004 3:51:16 PM Eastern Standard Time, 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
But, as 
  you know, there are many whochallenge the inalienability and self-evidence 
  of rights precisely on thegrounds that if rights have these non-material 
  properties
Why are 
"inalienability" and "self-evidence" "non-material properties"? Certainly, 
"self-evidence" is howwe know the truth ofpropositionswithout 
any ontological commitment.Further, I'm not sure I understand why 
"inalienability" implies non-naturalism.Perhaps, Frank is right that both 
these terms can be interpreted as "non-naturalist," but surely that 
interpretation is not necessary for rendering these terms intelligible.

Bobby

Robert Justin 
LipkinProfessor of LawWidener University School of 
LawDelaware
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Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-18 Thread Ed Brayton
Francis Beckwith wrote:
The declaration says three things about rights:
1. That they are self-evident
2. That they are inalienable
3. That they have divine source
So, Ed seems to be suggesting that we jettison teaching the third because
there is no principled way to teach it with out implying the falsity of
other takes on God and rights.  But, as you know, there are many who
challenge the inalienability and self-evidence of rights precisely on the
grounds that if rights have these non-material properties, it seems that
some form of non-naturalism must be the case and theism is a form of
non-naturalism.  So, there's good reason to ignore 1 and 2 as well since it
may lead one to think that theism has a lot more going for it in grounding
rights than let's say materialism.
I'm not suggesting that we not teach that this is the philosophy behind 
the Declaration, I'm just saying that if we allow teachers to advocate 
that the theological position is true, how do we prevent them from 
advocating any other theological position? If we cannot do so, then 
we'll have quite a mess on our hands as Muslim teachers teach their 
students that the Quran is true, for instance, or atheist teachers teach 
that the bible is false. From a practical standpoint, this clearly isn't 
workable, but at the same time you cannot constitutionally say that we 
will allow teachers to teach some theological positions but not others. 
How would you address that question, which was at the core of what I said?

Ed Brayton
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Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-18 Thread paul-finkelman
Divine source, perhaps, but certainly not the God of the Bible, but rather a 
diestic creator or nature's God.  

Paul FInkelman

Quoting Francis Beckwith [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

 Very good questions. I think one could teach the logic of the
 Declaration
 without saying that it is true.  For example, I frequently
 lecture on
 thinkers and arguments that I don't think are correct, but I
 do so because I
 would not be a virtuous teacher.  On the other hand, it may be
 that some
 religious beliefs are more consistent with a just regime than
 others. For
 example, from your perspective a religion that taught its
 adherents that the
 state should teach in its schools the true religion would be a
 religion that
 is mistaken about the nature of the state.
 
 Frank
 
 On 12/18/04 3:23 PM, Ed Brayton [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 wrote:
 
  Francis Beckwith wrote:
  
  The declaration says three things about rights:
  
  1. That they are self-evident
  2. That they are inalienable
  3. That they have divine source
  
  So, Ed seems to be suggesting that we jettison teaching the
 third because
  there is no principled way to teach it with out implying
 the falsity of
  other takes on God and rights.  But, as you know, there are
 many who
  challenge the inalienability and self-evidence of rights
 precisely on the
  grounds that if rights have these non-material properties,
 it seems that
  some form of non-naturalism must be the case and theism is
 a form of
  non-naturalism.  So, there's good reason to ignore 1 and 2
 as well since it
  may lead one to think that theism has a lot more going for
 it in grounding
  rights than let's say materialism.
  
  
  I'm not suggesting that we not teach that this is the
 philosophy behind
  the Declaration, I'm just saying that if we allow teachers
 to advocate
  that the theological position is true, how do we prevent
 them from
  advocating any other theological position? If we cannot do
 so, then
  we'll have quite a mess on our hands as Muslim teachers
 teach their
  students that the Quran is true, for instance, or atheist
 teachers teach
  that the bible is false. From a practical standpoint, this
 clearly isn't
  workable, but at the same time you cannot constitutionally
 say that we
  will allow teachers to teach some theological positions but
 not others.
  How would you address that question, which was at the core
 of what I said?
  
  Ed Brayton
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Paul Finkelman
Chapman Distinguished Professor of Law
Univ. of Tulsa College of Law
2120 East 4th Place
Tulsa OK  74104-3189

Phone: 918-631-3706
Fax:918-631-2194
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RE: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-17 Thread Volokh, Eugene
I'm not sure this is quite right.  Surely principles such as no
killing, no stealing, no beating people up, no defaming people, no
destroying their property, and so on -- both those mentioned in the Ten
Commandments and those not so mentioned -- are a far more important part
of the moral foundation of American law than the political principles in
the Declaration of Independence.  The Declaration is pretty important,
but the basic rules of decent conduct with respect to each other seem
much more foundational.  That aspect of the English heritage was surely
not rejected.

Nor did all the Americans of 1776-1791 reject an established
Church or an official religion, as both the continuing establishments
and the favorable mentions of Christianity in various state
constitutions attest.  They were rejecting a nationally established
religion, to be sure, but not state establishments (or at least not all
were rejecting it).

Now I'm not sure how many Americans of 1776-1791 assumed that
God literally made laws, at least those laws under which Englishmen and
Americans lived.  I take it that the claim about the Framers'
religiosity is that they thought right and justice were largely defined
by God's law (hence the reference to endowment by their Creator, or for
that matter the appeal to God as a judge of the colonists' cause),
something that's not inconsistent with the view that governments derive
just powers from the consent of the governed.

Eugene

Paul Finkelman writes:

 The foundation of American law, especially the *moral* 
 foundation, begins with the Declaration of Independence, and 
 continues at least through the adoption of the Bill of 
 Rights. The Americans of 1776-1791 were clearly rejecting a 
 great deal of their English heritage, including and 
 established Church, an official religion, and the assumption 
 that God made laws.  Governments are instituted among Men, 
 deriving their just Powers from the Consent of the Governed, 
 as Jefferson noted.  Chief Justice Moore put up the Ten 
 Commandments monument in Alabama because he claimed there was 
 a high law which he had to obey.  That may his personal 
 theology, but it not the basis of our law.
 
 Paul Finkelman
 
 Quoting A.E. Brownstein [EMAIL PROTECTED]:
 
  This is really a critical part of the issue. Are we talking about
  distinctly American law or more generic Anglo-American law.
  I have no 
  doubt that the American Tories, the British soldiers who shot
  down the 
  Minutemen at Lexington, the Hessian mercenaries, and King
  George III 
  himself all believed in the Ten Commandments as much
  Washington and the 
  drafters of the Declaration of Independence and the
  Constitution. If the 
  question is whether belief in the Ten Commandments predisposes
  you to 
  accept the American experiment in self-government, obviously
  it did not 
  have that effect on a lot of believers.
  
  Alan Brownstein
  UC Davis
  
  
  At 04:51 PM 12/17/2004 -0500, you wrote:
  Speaking for myself, none of this discussion has been about
  Anglo-American
  law, it's been about American law. The Constitution was
  obviously a
  radical break from English law on many levels. It established
  an entirely
  different basis upon which legitimate lawmaking was based,
  and upon which
  a legitimate lawmaker might rule. The notion of a government
  instituted
  solely to protect the rights that each individual is endowed
  with from
  birth was monumentally different than the notion of a nation
  ruled by the
  divine right of the king, to whom one must plead for whatever
  recognition
  he chooses to give our claims of liberty. The distinction is
  as basic as
  the one Madison draws so vividly, with the European
  governments that
  preceeded ours being charters of freedom granted by power,
  while ours was
  a charter of power granted by a free people. Hence, the
  notion of
  combining Anglo- and American together for the purposes of
  this discussion
  seems entirely unwarranted to me. Under the English law prior
  to our
  constitution, the King could have declared any of the Ten
  Commandments to
  be legally in force and prescribe whatever punishment he
  chose upon it; in
  our system after the Constitution, most of the commandments
  could not be
  legitimately made into laws without violating it. I can't
  think of a more
  obvious reason not to combine the two as one.
  
  Ed Brayton
  
  Ross S. Heckmann wrote:
  This list has recently discussed the issue of whether the
  Ten
  Commandments are, or ever have been, the foundation of the
  Anglo-American
  legal system.
  
  A book was published earlier this year that sheds light on
  this
  issue.  It is entitled The Ten Commandments in History.
  It was based
  on a manuscript left behind by the late Professor Emeritus
  Paul Grimley
  Kuntz, a distinguished member of the Emory philosophy
  faculty and an
  ardent supporter of the Law and Religion Program.  (From
  the 

Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-17 Thread RJLipkin





In a message dated 12/17/2004 7:11:44 PM Eastern Standard Time, 
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
Surely 
  principles such as nokilling, no stealing, no beating people up, no 
  defaming people, nodestroying their property, and so on -- both those 
  mentioned in the TenCommandments and those not so mentioned -- are a far 
  more important partof the moral foundation of American law than the 
  political principles inthe Declaration of 
Independence.
I 
am not at all sure why we stop ourbackward inquiry with the Declaration, 
the Magna Carta, or the Ten Commandments. Surely, an exhaustive 
anthropologyshould reach back into those primitive societies that survived 
because they embraced such rules as no killing, no stealing, etc. In other 
words, we can, if we choose, stop at our favorite period and say the basis of 
Anglo-American law resides in that period without exploring whether such 
societies--whatever societies are--could persist without such rules of practical 
prudence. The mistake is to identify these rules of practical prudence with any 
particular period, religion, or secular creed. Instead, we should be aware 
that human society cannot exist without these rules of practical prudence, and 
thus where they come from is irrelevant to the question of whether we should 
embrace them.

Bobby

Robert Justin 
LipkinProfessor of LawWidener University School of 
LawDelaware
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RE: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-17 Thread paul-finkelman
For the Ten C. to be the foundation of law we would at least have to imagine 
that without the 10 C we might not have these rules; but of course ALL 
societies ban murder (not killing, which is a problem with the (incorrect) King 
James translation of the 10 C;), stealing, and perjury.  The 10 C say NOTHING 
about destroying property beating people up or defamation.  So, I don't see how 
the 10 C can be the moral foundation of law if those are central to our law.  
Most of the 10 C have NOTHING to do with our law (one God, no sculptured 
images, keep the sabbath, honor your parents, don't take God's name in vain, 
etc.) so how can somethign be the moral foundation of the law if most of it is 
completely ignored by our law.   Some of our law -- or at least our economy -- 
cuts against the 10 C-- Our economy is based on the concept of coveting your 
neighbors things goods, house (maybe not wife).  That is what makes capitallism 
run.

Paul Finkelman

Quoting Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

   I'm not sure this is quite right.  Surely principles such as
 no
 killing, no stealing, no beating people up, no defaming
 people, no
 destroying their property, and so on -- both those mentioned
 in the Ten
 Commandments and those not so mentioned -- are a far more
 important part
 of the moral foundation of American law than the political
 principles in
 the Declaration of Independence.  The Declaration is pretty
 important,
 but the basic rules of decent conduct with respect to each
 other seem
 much more foundational.  That aspect of the English heritage
 was surely
 not rejected.
 
   Nor did all the Americans of 1776-1791 reject an established
 Church or an official religion, as both the continuing
 establishments
 and the favorable mentions of Christianity in various state
 constitutions attest.  They were rejecting a nationally
 established
 religion, to be sure, but not state establishments (or at
 least not all
 were rejecting it).
 
   Now I'm not sure how many Americans of 1776-1791 assumed
 that
 God literally made laws, at least those laws under which
 Englishmen and
 Americans lived.  I take it that the claim about the Framers'
 religiosity is that they thought right and justice were
 largely defined
 by God's law (hence the reference to endowment by their
 Creator, or for
 that matter the appeal to God as a judge of the colonists'
 cause),
 something that's not inconsistent with the view that
 governments derive
 just powers from the consent of the governed.
 
   Eugene
 
 Paul Finkelman writes:
 
  The foundation of American law, especially the *moral* 
  foundation, begins with the Declaration of Independence, and
 
  continues at least through the adoption of the Bill of 
  Rights. The Americans of 1776-1791 were clearly rejecting a
 
  great deal of their English heritage, including and 
  established Church, an official religion, and the assumption
 
  that God made laws.  Governments are instituted among
 Men, 
  deriving their just Powers from the Consent of the
 Governed, 
  as Jefferson noted.  Chief Justice Moore put up the Ten 
  Commandments monument in Alabama because he claimed there
 was 
  a high law which he had to obey.  That may his personal 
  theology, but it not the basis of our law.
  
  Paul Finkelman
  
  Quoting A.E. Brownstein [EMAIL PROTECTED]:
  
   This is really a critical part of the issue. Are we
 talking about
   distinctly American law or more generic Anglo-American
 law.
   I have no 
   doubt that the American Tories, the British soldiers who
 shot
   down the 
   Minutemen at Lexington, the Hessian mercenaries, and King
   George III 
   himself all believed in the Ten Commandments as much
   Washington and the 
   drafters of the Declaration of Independence and the
   Constitution. If the 
   question is whether belief in the Ten Commandments
 predisposes
   you to 
   accept the American experiment in self-government,
 obviously
   it did not 
   have that effect on a lot of believers.
   
   Alan Brownstein
   UC Davis
   
   
   At 04:51 PM 12/17/2004 -0500, you wrote:
   Speaking for myself, none of this discussion has been
 about
   Anglo-American
   law, it's been about American law. The Constitution was
   obviously a
   radical break from English law on many levels. It
 established
   an entirely
   different basis upon which legitimate lawmaking was
 based,
   and upon which
   a legitimate lawmaker might rule. The notion of a
 government
   instituted
   solely to protect the rights that each individual is
 endowed
   with from
   birth was monumentally different than the notion of a
 nation
   ruled by the
   divine right of the king, to whom one must plead for
 whatever
   recognition
   he chooses to give our claims of liberty. The distinction
 is
   as basic as
   the one Madison draws so vividly, with the European
   governments that
   preceeded ours being charters of freedom granted by
 power,
   while ours was
   a charter of 

Re: Are the Ten Commandments the foundation of the Anglo-Americanlegal system?

2004-12-17 Thread Richard Dougherty
Ed:
I think this is stated very clearly, and I think you have done an excellent job 
of laying out your position -- others have, too, including those who disagree 
with you, but I want to focus on this one a bit.

This discussion started some days ago about whether the CA Steve Williams suit 
was being described properly as outlawing the Declaration of Independence.  
Your position, I take it, is that that misrepresents the case.  And maybe it 
does, or maybe it overstates the case, if it is true that the textbook for Mr. 
Williams's class has a copy of the Declaration in it (that has been reported).

My question is a simple one, I think: regardless of the facts of this case, do 
you think it is unconstitutional to teach the Declaration of Independence -- 
that is, not as a historical document, but as if it were true, and that it is 
legitimate to tell students that it is true?  The problem, of course, is with 
the multiple references to God in the document.  Is it a violation of the First 
Amendment, say, to tell students that many (some?) of the colonists thought 
that God was the source of our rights, and that they were right about that?  Or 
do we avoid First Amendment problems only by saying that many of them perhaps 
thought that God was the source of our rights, but then abstain from making any 
suggestions about whether that is in fact right?

Others are certainly welcome to respond, and I welcome any responses.

Richard Dougherty 

-- Original Message --
From: Ed Brayton [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Reply-To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Date:  Fri, 17 Dec 2004 19:15:38 -0500

Kurt Lash wrote:

Actually, the establishment clause (and the Tenth Amendment) left to 
the states the decision whether to adopt common law doctrines relating 
to religious freedom.  Early on, state courts regularly applied common 
law doctrines like religious blasphemy and the Pearson Rule which 
decided church property disputes by deciding which group adhered most 
closely to the original faith of the church.  By the mid-1800s, 
however, most state courts had begun to disentangle religious 
propositions and the state's common law.  


Certainly true that one can find lots of connections between the English 
common law and various state laws regulating religious conduct, such as 
blasphemy laws and sabbath laws. But it's equally true that such laws 
are entirely antithetical to the principles found in the Constitution. 
There clearly was a sea change in the way we viewed such matters that 
began, I believe, not so much with the first amendment but with the 
passage of Jefferson's Act for Establishing Religious Freedom in 
Virginia in 1786, and with the publishing and dissemination of Madison's 
Memorial and Remonstrance. While the free exercise clause was not 
initially binding on the states, the tide had turned against the notion 
that government had the authority to regulate and coerce religious 
beliefs, and by 1833 all of the original colonies had disestablished 
their state churches. So at best, one might argue that the Ten 
Commandments influenced English common law, which the Constitution 
rejected. One can make the argument I am opposing only by pretending 
that there is a seamless cloth made up of both the English common law 
and the American system of freedom of religion, when in fact the two are 
quite opposed to one another. Again I state that in almost every respect 
in which one can draw an analog between one of the Ten Commandments and 
a law that existed either in the English common law or in the states in 
America for a time, such laws are entirely unconstitutional 
(particularly after incorporation when they are forbidden to state 
governments as well). So far from being based on that influence, our 
Constitutional system can better be viewed as a rejection of that influence.

Ed Brayton
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