On Tue, 28 Mar 2017 21:10:58 +0900 "Martin J. Dürst" <due...@it.aoyama.ac.jp> wrote: (in Re: Standaridized variation sequences for the Desert alphabet?)
> On 2017/03/27 21:59, Michael Everson wrote: > > Aa and Ɑɑ are used contrastively for different sounds in some > > languages and in the IPA. Ɡɡ is not, to my knowledge, used > > contrastively with Gg (except that ɡ can only mean /ɡ/, while > > orthographic g can mean /ɡ/, /dʒ/, /x/ etc. But g vs ɡ is > > reasonably analogous to 𐐦 and <lig>𐐃𐐆</lig> being used for /juː/. > The contrastive use *in some languages or notations* (IPA) is the > reason these are separately encoded. I thought that reason is that at the time, the IPA proscribed the use of the two-storey 'g' in phonetic notation. They have since relented. This was disunification on the basis that one form simply looks wrong. Which writing system contrasts the two? Richard.
