Mr Miller writes,

"The only evidence required to judge a painting is presented by the painting
itself, and theory should be irrelevant except as a  way to explain a
judgment that's already been made."

I wonder how much work is being done by the lonely modal verb, 'should' in
this sentence.  How heavy a conceptual load does it have to bear?

For in the first instance I am tempted to say that the act of painting is no
less theoretical than the act of reading.  But reading is not necessarily an
art, save perhaps metaphorically. My point: why would one think that the
product of a theoretical act should be more immediate that the process it
emerged from (even if the product sometimes seems to us psychological agents
to be 'immediately given') ?  Why, in other words, should everyone be able
to immediately understand  a work, be able to immediately feel its beauty,
when the ideas of 'work' and of 'beauty' are in a very real sense
theoretical contrivances to begin with?

Could you explain, Mr Miller, why artworks _should_ be immediately
intelligible?

On Thu, Apr 2, 2009 at 10:57 AM, Chris Miller <[email protected]>wrote:

> Before launching an attack on Titian's late work -- I thought I'd take
> another
> look on the internet -- and realized that it was only a few pieces that I
> can't stand -- especially those two that were recently in the news: "Diana
> and
> Actaeon"  along with "Diana and Callisto" -- as shown here:
>
> http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/entertainment/7584902.stm
>
> Do I really need to explain how jumbled these are?  They should be cut up
> to
> protect the good areas from the bad.
>
> (and I also can't stand the two statues in the background of his last,
> probably unfinished,  painting, "Pieta")
>
> Regarding the rest of  William's assertions -- I do not agree that "one who
> is
> deeply informed about that artist and the literature examining him/her" is
> necessarily a better judge of aesthetic quality than anyone else --
> although,
> I would also not say that "most ordinary judgment is equal to the most
> informed"
>
> We just have a different idea as to what qualifies as "most informed".
>
> I've been getting into the culture of Hindustani music a  bit, lately, and
> in
> one memoir, the author wrote of  an old man coming up  to her and her
> teacher
> (a famous singer) and recalling a concert he had heard 30 years earlier,
> and
> then making a thoughtful, and very useful comment.  He clearly was
> knowledgeable about the art, but he was nothing like a professional
> scholar.
>
> Could  a non-professional scholar make a good judgment about some new
> findings
> in microbiology or astrophysics?  I don't know - perhaps - but it seems
> less
> likely, because a good judgment in those fields  requires familiarity with
> a
> large body of evidence and theory -- while the only evidence required to
> judge
> a painting is presented by
> the painting itself, and theory should be irrelevant except as a  way to
> explain a judgment that's already been made.
>
>
>
>
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