Hello,
 My inital enquiry about why variance is used as a basis for geostatistics appears
to be the tip of the iceberg of many reasons and a large amount of complex
mathematical theory. I have included a summary of further postings I have received concerning this matter and will later write a short summary of these reasons based
on the emails received.
 
Regards Digby Millikan B.Eng

Geolite Mining Systems
U4/16 First Ave.,
Payneham South SA 5070
Australia.
Ph: +61 8 84312974

[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.users.on.net/digbym
//======================================================= 
Digby Millikan wrote:
 
Hello,
  I was wondering if someone can tell me about statistical parameters,
why standard deviation and variance is used as opposed to mean absolute
deviation from the mean. It rings a bell that intergral calculus has
something
to do with it e.g. related to formulea for a normal distribution .
 M.David states the variogram uses the squared term as it makes calculations
easier, as it would being related to statistical parameters such as
variance,
covariance similarly, A.Journel informed me, as Donald exaplained Kriging
is Least Squared Error.

Thanks in advance,

Regards Digby Millikan
//======================================================
This question comes up from time to time in statistics and it is likely 
that the answer pertains to optimization.  The variance is a second 
moment, i.e., it is related to a sum of squares. Problems pertaining to 
sums of squares arise in a number of places  (e.g., moment of inertia, 
PCA,  energy) but part of the reason for the emphasis on squares as 
opposed to absolute values probably has to do with differentiation. The 
absolute value function is not differentiable at zero whereas the sum of 
squares is differentiable. Moreove when optimizing a sum of squares one 
obtains a system of linear equations,  to optimize a function involving 
the absolute value does not lead to a nice analytic solution. Note that 
Newton used squares in his landmark study on errors.
 
The absolute value is not exactly a first moment but it certainly is not 
a second moment. Consequently if one constructs an objective function 
using absolute values as opposed to squares it will behave differently.
 
The absolute deviation probably more naturally relates to the median 
(than to the mean).
 
In summary I don't think there is an absolute answer to your question 
and you may get different answers/explanations from different people but 
I think all will include some of the ideas above.
 
Donald E. Myers
//=======================================================
Virgil wrote;
 
Partly because way back in the days when calculators and computers
were people, there were nicely developed shortcuts for calculating
means and variances which were not available for medians and mean
absolute deviations (MADs).

Secondly, the theoretical analysis of Gaussian distributions was
easier to develop in terms of means and variances than in terms of
medians and MADs, and, originally, Gaussian were, by far, the most
studied of the continuous distributions in the early days of
statistics. Then Gossett developed the Student distributions, again
strongly dependent on means and variances.
//=======================================================
The reason is simple and comprehensive....

Assume a population with ANY distribution of elements. Then randomly select
a number of sample elements from the population to characterize the
underlying population. That distribution of sample elements ALWAYS tends
toward a normal [Gaussian] distribution. And the mean and standard deviation
of the sample distribution are unbiased representations of the mean and
standard deviation of the underlying population.

WDA

end
//=======================================================

Reply via email to