opaqueice;176509 Wrote: 
> As a research physicist that has decent familiarity with the cognitive
> psych literature (not to mention the results of blind tests in audio),
> I have a pretty good basis for judging plausibility here.  It is
> certain that the psychological explanation highly plausible, which
> means you could never convince someone that it's a physical effect
> without eliminating that first.  You could go on and ask  how plausible
> is the physics explanation, and (at least in my professional judgement)
> it's highly implausible.

Mr. Opaqueice (do you have a first name?),
I think your academic credentials and job aren't particularly relevant
to this discussion.  And it comes across as a bit high handed - you
can't convince us that are right so you bring in academic credentials
to enhance the arguments that aren't good enough to do the job on their
own.

If I take Jeff's simplified version of the discussion:

> 1) I can hear a difference and that's good enough for me.
> 
> 2) Until you can prove to me that you hear a difference I will remain
> skeptical.

I think that second part isn't quite accurate.  I think that part 2) is
really:

2)I don't believe that you are hearing a real difference and I will
insist that you aren't until you prove it to me.  It's your job to
prove it me, not my job to disprove that there's a real difference.

This type of passive sniping from the sidelines is really a bit off
putting.
If you don't believe that there are differences with these tweaks
that's fine - just leave us to have our fun.  But it's not really
necessary to turn every discussion into one about blind testing.  After
all, this is the Audiophiles board.

---Gary


-- 
GaryB
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