If you have taken N samples, and if the FFT algorithm you're using is consistent with the definition at the start of this article (which is the standard one):
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/A_derivation_of_the_discrete_Fourier_transform then the only normalization is a factor of N (see the definition of the inverse transform near the bottom of the article). For example if one of the X_k's is non-zero, that could correspond to a pure sine wave at frequency k/N with amplitude X_k/N (in units of 10 volts, in the case of your ADC, and I think there's no factor of 2). I say *could* because of aliasing, but if you've band-limited the original signal before the FFT, that *is* what it corresponds to. Does that answer the question? -- opaqueice ------------------------------------------------------------------------ opaqueice's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=4234 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=34206 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list [email protected] http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles
