Themis;350875 Wrote: 
> I get your point and Pat's one. But I strongly disagree about your
> distortion level example : If a lot of people can hear differences
> between -say- different speaker cables or even between microphones,
> although CCIR/ITU-R ABX tests prove that no-one hears any differences
> of that level anyway, then, probably, the famous ABX tests methodology
> is broken and/or there's a factor that we forgot to consider.
> Also, I happen to know some high-end amplifier designers, and I can
> tell you that when they go as far as 100kHz and 0,001% and 0dB
> frequency responce deviation (although the... tests say that no-one
> hears differences of 0,1dB), it is not for marketing purposes. 
> It is because the sound of their product is better with than without.
> Go figure.

At the risk of opening up the classic objectivist/subjectivist black
hole, I have never understood this argument.

With all due respect, if:
1) A specific individual claims he can hear the difference between A
and B when he knows which one he is hearing, and
2) That individual cannot differentiate A from B in an double-blind
test, and
3) This scenario is repeated every time, for many tests, with many
individuals, and
4) Countless studies across disciplines have demonstrated that the
placebo effect is real

Then why is it reasonable to conclude that there is something wrong
with the tests, rather than that none of these individuals can really
hear the difference?


-- 
jeffmeh
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