In doing this we can see if there is any significant preference among respondents!
I want to know, EVEN with this amount of (pre-)ringing, whether suppression with the minimum phase setting actually results in a significant difference detected. 1. Is there significant *preference* in a naturalistic sample for one setting vs. another? 2. Are listeners able to consistently "prefer" one variety over another among the 3 samples? Ie. They keep preferring the same type of filter? How many of these potential "golden ears" are there? Of course it's also possible that the folks with these *systems* are particularly susceptible to high frequency nonlinearities. 3. Can we detect cohort effect among musicians, production folks, and even audio reviewers? I have been told for example that musicians and those who record and produce music may be able to detect the differences better... In any event, the filter effect is clear. Trading strong pre-ringing at 22kHz for high frequency phase shift. Is there an audible difference and can some people consistently tell? We can deal with the idea of suppressing ringing and such in a future test. One variable at a time :-). BTW: I resample with these steep filters all the time. So I have vested interest in changing how I do things based on the results! Archimago's Musings: (archimago.blogspot.com) A 'more objective' audiophile blog. ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Archimago's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=2207 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=103537 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list audiophiles@lists.slimdevices.com http://lists.slimdevices.com/mailman/listinfo/audiophiles
