Hello,
I’ve got one question about the qames and qames-hatuph (linked also with the sheva and the syllabes). If the qames is in a closed, unaccented syllable, it is pronounced qames-hatuph. Take these 2 words: לְבָבְךָ הָקְטַל My question is: why do we pronounce "le-va-ve-kha" (and not "le-vov-kha") on the one hand; and on the other hand, “hoq-tal”? Both cases seem to me identical, i.e. a qames in a closed, unaccented syllable. So why 2 different rules? In other words, why is the qames in the first case a qames and not a qames-hatuph since it is followed by a sheva, so in a closed, unaccented syllable (I presume the accent falls on the last syllable)? Or, to say it again differently, why is the syllable "va" in "le-va-ve-kah" open and not closed, since followed by a sheva? Many thanks in advance if you can help. Sébastien _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list b-hebrew@lists.ibiblio.org http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
