Sebastien, I'll try to make an answer ready for you. But in the meanwhile, remark: it is NOT "qamats-hatuph" but "qamats qatan".
The "qamats-hatuph" is only used with *guturals*. Look for instance at Jdg 5:6, 8th word. Another sample at Ps 9:7. Heartly, Pere Porta 2011/2/28 Sébastien Louis <[email protected]> > Pere, > > million thanks for your explanations, very clear in this particular case. > As I'm still a beginner in biblical Hebrew, may I ask if there is a general > rule saying when we should pronounce qamats and when we should pronounce > qamats-hatuph? I thought that in every closed, unaccented syllabe, it was > qamats-hatuph. But I see that there are many exceptions and cases where it > is not the case... > > Thanks again, > > Sébastien Louis > > ------------------------------ > Date: Mon, 28 Feb 2011 12:27:51 +0100 > Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Qames hatuph - syllable and sheva > From: [email protected] > To: [email protected] > CC: [email protected] > > > Sébastien, > > you bring here two different cases. > > 1. You refer to the word we find in Dt 6:5. There are other similar cases > in the Bible (look for instance at Ps 55:23; at 1Sa 9:10 or at Gn 40:19). > > Remark: > -All nouns consisting of three root letters, the first one having shewa and > the second one having qamats (all....with *five* exceptions) ------> take > qamats under the second consonant when they take the masculine suffix for > you (male). > --Most nouns consisting of three root letters, the first one having tsere > (long e) and the second one having qamats (the word you mention is one of > these: look at Dt 28:28 for the basic or absolute) behave similarly if they > do not come from roots ayin-waw nor have a guttural for their first root > consonant. > > 2. The Hoph'al. > > The first syllable in the Hoph'al is ALWAYS read with vowel 'o' and in the > unvowellized writing a waw is inserted. > > So, הָקְטַל > > is ALWAYS read or pronounced as "hoqtal" and it is always written as הוקטל > in the writing without vowels (namely the usual Israeli script...) > > You have other cases in Jr 6:6, Joel 1:9 and in Dn 9:1 > > Is this clear enough for your purposes? > > > Heartly > > Pere Porta > (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain) > > 2011/2/28 Sébastien Louis <[email protected]> > > > Hello, > > > > > > I’ve got one question > about the qames and qames-hatuph (linked also with the sheva and the > syllabes). If the qames is > in a closed, unaccented syllable, it is pronounced qames-hatuph. Take these > 2 words: > לְבָבְךָ > > > > > > > > > הָקְטַל > > > > > My question is: why do we pronounce "le-va-ve-kha" (and not "le-vov-kha") > on the > one hand; and on the other hand, “hoq-tal”? Both cases > seem to me identical, i.e. a qames in a closed, unaccented syllable. So why > 2 different rules? > > > > > In > other words, why is the qames in the first case a > qames and not a qames-hatuph since it is followed by a sheva, so in a > closed, > unaccented syllable (I presume the accent falls on the last > syllable)? Or, to say it again differently, why is the syllable "va" in > "le-va-ve-kah" open and not closed, since followed by a sheva? > > > > > > Many thanks in advance if you can help. > > > Sébastien > _______________________________________________ > b-hebrew mailing list > [email protected] > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew > > > > > -- > Pere Porta > > -- Pere Porta _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
