Isaac: Now that you have given specific examples, the answer is no in both cases that you presented.
Karl W. Randolph. On Tue, Mar 22, 2011 at 3:41 AM, Isaac Fried <[email protected]> wrote: > Take Qohelet 5:4 > > טוב אשר לא תדר, משתדור ולא תשלם > > and replace $E- by ZEH: to have > > טוב אשר לא תדר, מזה: תדור ולא תשלם > > It appears to me that in many instances V- (VAV HA-XIBUR) stands for the > latter $E-, for instance, Obadia 1:1 > > וציר בגוים שלח > > that is essentially > > שציר בגוים שלח > > Isaac Fried, Boston University > > > On Mar 21, 2011, at 10:47 PM, George Athas wrote: > > Isaac Fried wrote, 'I am afraid you did not pay close attention to what I >> have written. I >> have written ZEH: not ZEH.' >> >> My mistake then. Care to enlighten us, Isaac? >> >> >> GEORGE ATHAS >> Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia) >> www.moore.edu.au > > _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
