Ah, I see what you're getting at now, Karl. However, I'm not sure your conclusion is necessary. It's certainly possible, but not necessary. On analogy with the optional nu in Greek, sometimes it's used on words in close proximity with other words that could have taken it. It seems a rather random thing. To use an English analogy, it's quite common to find contracted forms, as it is to find uncontracted forms, even within the same sentence, just like this one (note my use if "it's" and "it is"). There need not be a specific reason for it. It may well be purely random.
I doubt the explanation that it imparts emphasis because paragogic nun seems limited to vocalic subject suffixes on prefix conjugation verbal forms. In other words, it is an element that seems related to morphological features rather than semantic or syntactic considerations. Cheers! GEORGE ATHAS Dean of Research, Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia) On 29/10/2012, at 2:34 PM, "K Randolph" <[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>> wrote: George: When I see verses with multiple Yiqtol verbs, and only one of which has a paragogic nun, that indicates to me that there must have been some reason for that paragogic nun. That is not the sort of pattern in which one finds archaisms. That it’s just a surviving archaism doesn’t make sense. It may be as little as an emphatic, which often makes little to no difference for a translator. Karl W. Randolph. On Sun, Oct 28, 2012 at 7:33 PM, George Athas <[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>> wrote: I don't follow your reasoning, Karl, on how the use or spread of the paragogic nun means it must have had an affect on meaning. GEORGE ATHAS Dean of Research, Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au<http://moore.edu.au>) Sydney, Australia
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