I'm writing an essay in response to some people who are seriously misusing the concept. My argument is that it doesn't really exist, not even as a usage. That a particular passage may be prophetic has nothing to do with the particular aspect of the verbs employed, but the context of the passage and how it is then subsequently understood in the history of interpretation (I'm especially thinking of canonical interpretation, but not restricted to that). I'd appreciate any comments on this, or references to any published discussions beyond the apologetically driven "articles" I've seen on various web pages.
-- N.E. Barry Hofstetter Semper melius Latine sonat The American Academy http://www.theamericanacademy.net The North American Reformed Seminary http://www.tnars.net Bible Translation Magazine http://www.bible-translation.net http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
