Noam: On Sat, Dec 8, 2012 at 6:09 PM, Zalman Romanoff < [email protected]> wrote:
> In this week's Torah Portion, בראשית פרק מ verse 11 appears the word: > וָאֶשְׂחַט > > I checked a concordance - this verb appears nowhere else in the > tanakh. What is the source of the modern usage of the verb with a > samekh instead of with a sin as in this verse? Is it mishnaic? > First of all, it’s a Sin instead of a Shin, there’s no Samekh there. Secondly, the phrase “blood of grapes” is found, e.g. Genesis 49:11, so it’s not a stretch to consider a metaphorical “slaughter of grapes” to make wine. > > Thanks > > Noam Eitan, > > Brooklyn, NY > > Karl W. Randolph.
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