BARRY wrote: You seem to be switching categories here. Is it a faulty
etymology, or is it something to do with the rules of grammar? To me it appears
to be a pretty transparent form, but I'll be the first admit that my Hebrew is
not as strong as it should be. But let's say, despite your somewhat confusing
argumentation, you are absolutely right, and we translate it "valley of
darkness." What difference does it make? How should we interpret the Psalm
differently?
ISHINAN: It is definitely a faulty etymology, explained as a linguistic blend
of two words "Shadow" Z.ll and "death" Mwt. While in reality it means darkness
Z.ulumat (the plural of Z.almah; a simple rule of Semitic grammar). In any
case, the verse has nothing to do with 'death' nor 'shadow'. So, why is this
citation used during burial rituals? The only answer I can come up with is
that the word has been grossly misinterpreted.
Ishinan Ishibashi
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