To all who have contributed to this discussion: I would like to add my own contribution, but before I do so I would like us to define the difference if any between subjunctive and jussive. This is a source of confusion for me, even after four years of Greek and Hebrew. I recently worked through Robert Chisholm's workbook on Jonah and Ruth. Chisholm often uses the expression "this imperfect is jussive in meaning." I suppose he means the form is imperfect, but the pragmatic use is jussive. I would prefer if he just called the form a yiqtol or wayyiqtol.
As to the issue with the subjunctive, I have never heard a clear definition by an English speaking teacher. Does subjunctive refer to form or function? I was raised in the French part of Belgium. I took Dutch as a second language and German as a third. As an adult I spent 12 years in Kenya, where I learned Swahili and Luyia. I speak English, French and Swahili natively, and the others conversationally. Every one of these languages uses subjunctive to express a jussive. For this reason I think I am confused as to the difference between the two. Jonathan E Mohler Baptist Bible Graduate School Springfield, Missouri, US On May 29, 2013, at 11:00 AM, John Leake wrote: > Indeed, Krahmalkov maintains that the tripartite distinction between > indicative, subjunctive and jussive was strictly maintained in Phoenician, > and that this continued into Neo-Punic. In the last phases of Punic the > subjunctive was orthographically represented, but the subjunctive and jussive > were always distinguishable from the indicative since Phoenician maintained > the final nun of the 2nd and 3rd persons plural in the indicative prefix form)
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