On Tue, Jul 09, 2013 at 11:22:06AM +0100, Chris Watts wrote: > Hallo Pere, well firstly I recognised that the heh holem vav is > indicative of an imperative and the heh a hiphil, then the tsere > under the tsadi instead of a hireq. I was surprised so I checked B. > Davidsons's hebrew analytical lexicon and there is written this word > idicating it as an imperative hiphil? Also I checked my personal > grammar under the assumption that this verb would qualify as a Pe Vav/ > Pe Yod. > > Chris Watts > Ireland
But how would you explain the presence of the -תי ending? Petr Tomasek BTW. What do you mean by "indicative of an imperative"? To me this sounds like an oxymoron. _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
