The following examples of שבת have a patah under the bet rather than the
expected kamatz:
2. Numbers: 28:10
עֹלַ֥ת שַׁבַּ֖ת בְּשַׁבַּתּ֑וֹ עַל-עֹלַ֥ת הַתָּמִ֖יד וְנִסְכָּֽהּ׃ פ
4. Chronicles I: 9:32
וּמִן-בְּנֵ֧י הַקֳּהָתִ֛י מִן-אֲחֵיהֶ֖ם עַל-לֶ֣חֶם הַֽמַּעֲרָ֑כֶת לְהָכִ֖ין שַׁבַּ֥ת
שַׁבָּֽת׃
Some references list these occurrences under a construct rubric, which explains
the patah. But why is there a construct state here? And regarding the first
example, why does the identical phrase
2. Isaiah: 66:23
וְהָיָ֗ה מִֽדֵּי-חֹ֙דֶשׁ֙ בְּחָדְשׁ֔וֹ וּמִדֵּ֥י שַׁבָּ֖ת בְּשַׁבַּתּ֑וֹ יָב֧וֹא כָל-בָּשָׂ֛ר
לְהִשְׁתַּחֲוֹ֥ת לְפָנַ֖י אָמַ֥ר ה'׃
have a kamatz?
Thank you,
Ari
**********
Ari KinsbergMA, PharmD, RPh, Certified ImmunizerBrooklyn, New York**************
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