Hi Ari,


Your questions are intriguing.  It may be that GKC sect. 130 provides the
answer.



Here is a passage from that section (130a) that may help explain the
occurrence in Num 28:10.



"The construct state, which, . . . primarily represents only the immediate
government by one substantive of the following word (or combination of
words), is frequently employed in rapid narrative as a connecting form,
even apart from the genitive relation; so especially . . ."



This then leads into a discussion of places where this occurs with the
preposition B..  Perhaps this explains what is happening in Num 28:10.
 Perhaps,
then, the Masoretes were simply inconsistent in the way they pointed the
same construction in Isa 66:23.



Also in the same section (130e), there is a listing of places where there
is a simple apposition without a genitival relationship, yet the first word
in the apposition is pointed as if in construct.



I hope this helps.  If you don't have access to GKC and want some more
information, please contact me.



Blessings,



Jerry

Jerry Shepherd
Taylor Seminary
Edmonton, Alberta
[email protected]



On Wed, Aug 7, 2013 at 6:37 AM, AMK Judaica <[email protected]> wrote:

> The following examples of שבת have a patah under the bet rather than the
> expected kamatz:
>
> 2. Numbers: 28:10
> עֹלַ֥ת שַׁבַּ֖ת בְּשַׁבַּתּ֑וֹ עַל-עֹלַ֥ת הַתָּמִ֖יד וְנִסְכָּֽהּ׃ פ
> 4. Chronicles I: 9:32
> וּמִן-בְּנֵ֧י הַקֳּהָתִ֛י מִן-אֲחֵיהֶ֖ם עַל-לֶ֣חֶם הַֽמַּעֲרָ֑כֶת לְהָכִ֖ין
> שַׁבַּ֥ת שַׁבָּֽת׃
>
> Some references list these occurrences under a construct rubric, which
> explains the patah. But why is there a construct state here? And regarding
> the first example, why does the identical phrase
>
> 2. Isaiah: 66:23
> וְהָיָ֗ה מִֽדֵּי-חֹ֙דֶשׁ֙ בְּחָדְשׁ֔וֹ וּמִדֵּ֥י שַׁבָּ֖ת בְּשַׁבַּתּ֑וֹ יָב֧וֹא
> כָל-בָּשָׂ֛ר לְהִשְׁתַּחֲוֹ֥ת לְפָנַ֖י אָמַ֥ר ה'׃
>
> have a kamatz?
>
> Thank you,
> Ari
> **********
> Ari Kinsberg
> MA, PharmD, RPh, Certified Immunizer
> Brooklyn, New York
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