I find this statement rather...incredible. What it tells us is how the translator, involved in both linguistic communities, conceptualized the verbs. In Isaiah 44:24 we have him rendering with both present substantive participles and aorist main verbs. I don't think we can ignore this, and how the ancient translators (especially the LXX and Jerome) rendered these has to inform our own theories with regard to Hebrew verbs. The fact that there is not a "one-to-one correspondence" is in itself an important datum.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter Sent from my iPad Personal opinions expressed in this email do not reflect any institution with which I may be affiliated > > RF: There is not a one-to-one correspondence between the Hebrew verb forms of > the Tanakh and the Greek verb forms in the LXX. Therefore, in my opinion, > the use of verbs in the LXX tells us nothing about the meaning of the verbs > in the Hebrew text. _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
