What I don't get though, is if the bible is supposed to be the word of god,
how were those passages incorrect in the first place?


On 3/28/06, G <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> Speaking for the Bible, I know that most of the offending passages would
> be
> found in the Old Testament....books written about the old laws, as brought
> from Moses and interpreted in their day.
>
> What's cool about the Bible, is that when Jesus comes along, he pretty
> much
> shoots down all those old, offending passages.....ie. "The old law says an
> eye for an eye.....I tell you, turn the other cheek". Indeed, it was this
> kind of preaching that ultimately got him killed.
>
> My question would be: Does a similar type of refutation occur in the
> Koran???? Anyone know...?
>
> > Good question.
> > The answer for Christians may be that the Christian Bible is a 'new
> > testiment' that replaces the laws of the old.
> > I can answer for Jews and say that this is a legal decision based on
> > witnesses and other 'events' and could only applied in temple times when
> > there was a proper court. As the temple does not exist at the moment,
> > there is no way this law can even be contemplated, let alone enacted.
> When
> > the Temple comes and God reveals himself to the world without a doubt
> then
> > it'll be readressed but until then it's a moot point when it comes to
> > Jews. No Jew would use that as a basis for any attack/crime/whatever as
> > they can never be relivant at this time.
> >
> <snip>
>
>
>
> 

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