> -----Original Message-----
> From: Scott Stroz [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Sent: Sunday, November 02, 2008 10:08 PM
> To: cf-community
> Subject: Re: What Does THIS Mean?
> 
> You have no proof either.  You admitted yourself that what you could
> find
> 'indicates', not 'proves' but 'indicates'.

No.  I said I have evidence which indicates (indicates strongly I might add)
..  Clearly you don't.

It's a shame... it might have been a good conversation.

I'm sorry, but asking for proof shows a gross misunderstanding of how this
kind of inquiry works: you can never "prove".  The most you can do is
collect evidence and form the best probability.  All the evidence I've seen
indicates (strongly) that ethics and morals do not require indoctrination in
religion.

Since (I think we can agree) our legal system is a reflection of our moral
code.  Since (at least in Western culture) specifically religious rules are
not represented in our legal system it seems safe enough to say that the
idea that our legal system is based on religion would need at least some
evidence to entertain.

Of course that's not say that there are aspects of our legal system (I feel
unduly) influenced by religion. As both systems have become more complex
they have definitely intertwined.  A good example are the ridiculous laws
enacted to criminalize homosexuality - they are clearly religious in origin.

Does this "prove" anything?  Of course not - but the best evidence available
does lead one in that direction.

Jim Davis 



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