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Very true, Glo. And I am sorry if my
original post sparked any anti-surveyor sentiments. Once again, for the
record, I was just trying to get some confirmation about whether it is
"acceptable" or "legal" to have a policy of not initiating a new antipsychotic
medication until the MD has given an appropriate diagnosis. Our docs have
been using depression and agitation, and then get snarky with me when I try to
clarify. Seems as though it would be easier to have it on paper, saying,
"Dear Doctor. Your order for Risperdal for Resident Sally Swearsalot has been
noted. In order to begin this medication, please indicate the appropriate
diagnosis from the list below. Regulations require that one of these
diagnoses be present in order to justify use of this med."
Thanks, y'all, for bearing with me. I am just
trying to understand this.
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- Stop the Stereotypes Nmcb40doc
- Re: Stop the Stereotypes Glogloma
- Re: Stop the Stereotypes/More Antipsych stuf... Holly Sox, RN, RAC-C
- Re: Stop the Stereotypes/More Antipsych ... Sophie Kirkella
- Re: Stop the Stereotypes/More Antips... Holly Sox, RN, RAC-C
- Re: Stop the Stereotypes Catsrule16
- RE: Stop the Stereotypes Connie L. Frank
