I thought the court's ruling stated that Congress authorized the FCC to regulate only Telecommunications. If Congress wishes for the FCC to regulate Broadband, then it should do so. Hence Comcast, not a Telecommunications company, but a Broadband company does not fall under the juristicion of the FCC. Am I wrong?
Isn't Comcast's VOIP telecommunication? They promote it heavily as part of their double and triple play packages. Paid VOIP is telephony, only over broadband. What's the difference between that and landline and mobile communication [except that the latter work when the power's out]?
Is Comcast exempted from FCC telecommunications regulations whereas Verizon or AT&T DSL aren't exempted because they uses the same lines as landline telephones? Why?
This is screaming for an update of the definition of telecommunications. With more people using VOIP and cellular services, of course telecommunications include cable services. It needs to be revised in the FCC's code.
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