No slave states "enouraged" voluntary manumssion; Va. and Md. allowed it; there was some in SC as well and there was a small free black population especially in Charleston.  No one in SC or GA thought of free blacks as citizens;  In Va. Jefferson at least want to expell free blacks from the state.  I have read an awful lot of the writings, speeches, letters, etc. of these folks and while there is no smoking gun (and this may be the difference between historians rachign conclusions based on massive amounts of primary sources and lawyers looking for a cold hard piece of evidence that a jury would buy) , it seems to me that the southern framers, from Md. to Ga. could not have imagine blacks as "citizens" in any meaningful way.  The only exception might be NC where the very small number of free blacks had the same voting rights as whites.

You are right about the origin of racism; it first begins in a serious way after the REvolution, with Jefferson starting it off in the NOTES ON THE STATE OF VIRGINIA.  Indeed, I argued in my most recent book, DEFENDING SLAVERY, that the Revolution and the ideas of "all men are created equal" necessitated the ideology of race; otherwise you would have to accept free blacks as citizens and give up slaveholding.  

paul finkelman

Barksdale, Yvette wrote:
Sorry I'm late to this thread. I haven't checked in on list for a while. (And I'm not trying to restart it). One question:

Paul Finkelman writes:

"Can you imagine SC ratifiying if it pinckney had come back and
said you will have to deal with black us citizens?   "

Paul, are you sure about this, re southern views re race (as opposed to slavery) in 1787. Much of the virulently racist defense of slavery by southerners was developed, wasn't it,  in the Nineteenth century as a response to antislavery arguments. And with the exception of South Carolina and Georgia whose economies were most heavily dependent on slave labor, most slave states around the founding time, encouraging voluntary manumission of slaves.  Also, free blacks often owned substantial property in many Southern states (don't know about South Carolina, per se) Is it so clear that SC at the time of the founding  (as opposed to so pro-slavery) would have objected so automatically to a race-neutral concept of citizenship.

I've learned the hard way to defer to you on the history questions   but are you sure about this.

(OF course, this discussion bypasses the question, of whether,  even if you take an originalist approach, a pre-condition of fidelity to original intent, is the legitimacy of the group of  persons whose original intent you are referencing. There is no reason why an African-American for example,  should accept the legitimacy of any nation founding in which they were arbitrarily excluded from citizenship, even though African-Americans were the majority of the population in many states, had critical  battleground roles in the Revolutionary War (including being members of the Boston Tea party), voted in the ratifying conventions for the Constitution, etc., etc. Some minimal form of inclusiveness is a necessary precondition to legitimacy of any founding isn't it? Unless, of course, power is justified solely by power. IOW, would Pinckney have had the legitimate authority to exclude African-Americans from citizenship, even if he had been determined to.)

yb



*********************************************
Professor Yvette M. Barksdale
Associate Professor of Law
The  John Marshall Law School
315 S. Plymouth Ct.
Chicago, IL 60604
(312) 427-2737
(email:)  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
*****************************************************


  
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From:         Paul Finkelman[SMTP:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Reply To:     Discussion list for con law professors
Sent:         Friday, August 01, 2003 9:43 PM
To:   [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject:           Re: Dred Scott (was Scalia's Originalism)

I agree with Franck that it was reasonable to argue that free blacks
were citizens of hte US if you lived in some parts of the north; one
assumes the Mass. framers believed this, from their experience.  but the
va, sc and ga framers would never have understood this is what they were
doing.  Can you imagine SC ratifiying if it pinckney had come back and
said you will have to deal with black us citizens?   there wre multiple
intentions, as mark graber pointed out.    The problem with
"originalism" and "intentions" is that we cannot know what it means; we
can look at text (is Franck now a strict constructionist/textualist?);
but the text says slavery is protected in many ways; intentions go
beyond text to the debates (where they can help us, but of course mostly
they can't).  But on slavery it is quite clear the southern framers
*intended* to support slavery and ratified with that intention.  See
Pinckney's speeches in SC or even Madison's and Randolph's in VA.  Thus,
on this point, it seems to be, as Mark Graber said earlier, that Taney's
orginalism is as plausible as anyone else's; I would argue more so,
given the proslavery nature of the constitution.

I did not get into teh Dec of I, but the only reference to slavery there>
is at the end, when the Dec complains about the king freeing slaves to
fight against the patriots  (He has incited domestic insurrections.)  If
something in the Dec. of I. was supposed to apply to slaves -- if that
ws the *intent* of the DofI, I am sure the 40% of Virginia that was held
in slavery would have been happy to know about it.  But, neither the
primary author (the Master of Monticello) nor very many other southern
leaders, seemed to think that it applied.  Now, that leaves Prof. Franck
two alternatives.  Either he can concede that the Dec. of I's authors
did not intend it to apply to slavery or he can concend the founders,
starting with TJ, of being dishonest, hypocritcal, etc.

we agree on the territories clause; but I think Taney's 5th Amendment
argument is powerful and goes to the heart of what slaveholders intended
when the wrote and ratified that amendment. surely they did not intend
it to be an abolitionist amendment; they intended it to protect their
property.

Lincoln's Cooper Union speech -- as well as his House Divided Speech and
his debates with Douglas speeches are fine political rhetoric; I would
have voted for him; but it is not great history.  It is important for
those of us who admire Lincoln, but who are modern scholars, to
understand the difference between a great speech that fits and era, and
serious historical analaysis.  Lincoln was able to persuade the north
that his view of history was how it ought to be, but that does not mean
he was right about how it was.  fortunately, Lincoln was neither an
orginalist nor a text bound literalist.


(ps, please excuse typoes, i am working with one hand, the other is
taped up.)

--
Paul Finkelman
Chapman Distinguished Professor of Law
University of Tulsa College of Law
3120 East 4th Place
Tulsa, OK   74104-3189

918-631-3706 (office)
918-631-2194 (fax)

[EMAIL PROTECTED]

    

  

--
Paul Finkelman
Chapman Distinguished Professor of Law
University of Tulsa College of Law
3120 East 4th Place
Tulsa, OK   74104-3189

918-631-3706 (office)
918-631-2194 (fax)

[EMAIL PROTECTED]

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