Some thoughts on Dred Scott.  Professor Franck is quite correct that the
conventional view is that originalism can justify Dred Scott.  My view,
I should emphasize, is that originalism provides as much support to
Taney as to Curtis or McLean, not that Taney was right and they were
wrong.  Some specific commentary on points Professor Franck makes.


Professor Franck declares:

First, I said, Taney "was wrong, as a matter of original understanding,
to
deny that free blacks could be considered citizens of the United
States."  Prof. Finkelman asks whether I "really believe" that various
southerners at the time of ratification "believed that they were
entering a
Union in which the free blacks would be considered full citizens and in
which slavery would be threatened and hemmed in."  The question is not
what
they believed.  The question is what the Constitution permits and
prohibits.  If they didn't see that it permits the treatment of free
blacks
as citizens, and the hemming in of slavery, they weren't paying
attention.  Congress could, for instance--but did not--permit the
naturalization of nonwhite immigrants in its first naturalization
statutes.  Free blacks who were not free immigrants but emancipated or
born
free in the U.S. were considered citizens by a number of states, and
inasmuch as the Constitution was silent on what did or did not make
someone
born here a citizen, but permitted suits between "citizens of different
states" in Article III, Taney was wrong to address the irrelevant
question
of whether free blacks were or could be citizens of the U.S. (an
interesting move toward nationalization by a supposed states' rights
man).  It's a familiar judicial gambit: ask the wrong question and give
the
answer you like.

Two thoughts (and I do not have the opinion close at hand).  Taney
actually only discusses whether former slaves can become citizens by
virtue of emancipation.  His opinion actually leaves open whether
Congress can naturalize immigrants of color.  Second, some free blacks
were citizens in 1787, but I see little evidence that most southerners
were aware of this.  So suppose most southerners are under the
impression that only whites are citizens and most northerners under the
impression that persons of color can become citizens.  No meeting of
minds.  Both Curtis and Taney have to strain history to conclude
otherwise.

Back to Professor Franck:


My second point was that Taney "was wrong to hold that Congress lacked
power to outlaw slavery in the federal territories."  Prof. Finkelman
says
he agrees with me (I think) about the Article IV power over territories,
so
what has become of his assertion that various framers could not imagine
slavery being hemmed in by federal power?  Whatever "compromise" anyone
imagined to be embodied in the Northwest Ordinance about taking slaves
into
other territories, the Ordinance did not guarantee what treatment
Congress
would give to subsequently acquired territories.  In fact, it was the
perfect precedent for the Missouri Compromise that Taney overturned.

A note: interestingly, about 75-80 of the slave state representatives
who spoke during the Missouri Compromise debates either explicitly
declared that Congress could not ban slavery in the territories or made
arguments to that effect.  I have have only one non-border south
representative explicitly asserting a congressional right.
Nevertheless, believing the morthern territories to be a vast wasteland
they accepted to ban to get Missouri in.  So it is a bit more
complicated than traditionally thought to treat the Missouri Compromise
as recognition of congressional power.  Maybe it was a constitutional
compromise as well.

My third point was that Taney "was wrong to declare that such an act of
Congress [banning slavery in a territory] inhibited a slaveowner's
liberty
without due process of law."  Prof. Finkelman wants to know how I can
such
an argument "with a straight face."  Let's see.

At page 450 of his opinion, Taney offered this and only this as a due
process argument: "[A]n act of Congress which deprives a citizen of the
United States of his liberty or property merely because he came himself
or
brought his property into a particular Territory of the United States,
and
who had committed no offence against the laws, could hardly be dignified
with the name of due process of law."

This is a perfect example of question-begging.  The Missouri Compromise
made it an "offence against the laws" to carry slaves into certain
territories and there hold them as slaves.  The "penalty" was that they
were no longer slaves and the slaveholder lost his property.  Sure looks
like due process to me.  Unless one is a fan of substantive due process,
that highly useful judicial fraud.  I am not.  To borrow a bit from
Lincoln
and use it differently: what if the law had plainly said that one shall
not
bring hogs into a particular federal territory, and everyone was on
notice
that they would be taken away if discovered once one crossed the
border?  Does anyone imagine that this would run afoul of due process?
I
think that "could hardly be dignified with the name" of an argument.

I reply.  I do not have the quotes on me, though they are in my Dred
Scott piece.  Lincoln, Mclean and Justice brown (40 years later)
indicate that Cognress could not consistently with due process ban
people from bringing common farm animals into the territories.

Professor Franck again:

I thank Mark Graber for the honor of political scientists in his
characteristically mild fashion, even though he left me out of his honor
roll!

Back to me

I hadn't meant to leave anyone out by omission.  I disagree with certain
historical claims Professor Franck makes, some of the disagreements have
been published, but I take them to be disagreements among scholars who
read the historical evidence differently

MAG

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