From: "Paul & Ann Isherwood", [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Steve,
Good point ... who owned the pistols at the time it was alleged that they
were _stolen_ and did the _actual owner_ give his permission to the alleged
_thief_, thereby changing the ownership to that of the alleged _thief_. By
a simple expression of "if you want it have it" from the original owner the
_thief_ becomes the owner and therefore no _thief_.
In any event, was the original owner ever compensated ? I presume that
given the Home Office's tendency the claim is still _held up_ and therefore
ownership might still be an open subject as far as the original owner is
concerned.
Regards,
Paul
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