>
> If a model A has a foreign key on model B, then the table for A
> requires a field to track the relation. However, if model B has a
> "many to one" on A.... table A requires a field.
>

sorry, can you clarify that for me? - specifically: "model A has a
foreign key on model B" - which direction do you mean exactly?

or let me try to put it differently:  let's say that our model has two
domain classes: Parent and Child.  (Parent can have many Children.)

Taking this model, and rewriting what you said:  "If Parent has a
foreign key on Child, then the table for Parent requires a field to
track the relation.  However, if Child has a "many-to-one" on
Parent... Parent requires a field."

Isn't that saying the same thing twice (and both times wrong)?  If
Parent has a foreign key on Child, then the foreign key field is on
Child, right?  And, if Child has a "many-to-one" on Parent, then,
again, Child has the foreign key field.

Or did I just think backwards when reading your post?   ;)

I think what the original question is asking is, can the definition of
Parent have a "one-to-many" which points to Child?  At the database
level there would be no difference: Child would still have the foreign
key field.

- dan

p.s. I don't mean to comment about where fixes should be made (in
Admin or in Forms, etc).  Just trying to clarify the question.



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