Rich Ulrich wrote:
> On 24 Jan 2000 09:08:59 -0800, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Bushaw, Gordon
> -ADMIN) wrote:
>
> > A related question-
> > I seem to remember reading or hearing that the sex of a child after the
> > first is substantially more likely to match the sex of the previous child
> > than not. Does anyone have any information about this, or is it complete
> > nonsense?
>
> It would be complete nonsense if anyone claimed that.
> But you are probably imagining it.
It is not clear to me why the poster's question is nonsense. He seems to be
asking whether the outcome of successive births (boy/girl) are independent or
not. Surely there are some scenario's under which these events could be
nonindependent. Perhaps such scenarios are unlikely, but the poster seemed to
be interested in getting information on that.
Drake Bradley
Bates College
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