Professionals, please help with this question.
In the game of Blackjack (Las Vegas style) the house is said to have a
slight statistical advantage over the average player. Here are the house rules:
Dealer must "stand" (no more cards) on 17 or more; Dealer must take a card if
Dealer has 16 or less.
Meanwhile, the player may stand on any two cards or take additional card
at any time. The player may also split pairs, may "double down" (double the bet
and take one more card only).
Here is my problem. The Player may choose to play exactly the same rules
as the Dealer is REQUIRED to play; or the Player may choose some of the other
options. Since the Player has more choices or options in play than does the
Dealer, why does the Dealer have the statistical advantage? It seems to me the
Player would have the advantage. Can you help? (I have one year of college
statistics.)
===========================================================================
This list is open to everyone. Occasionally, less thoughtful
people send inappropriate messages. Please DO NOT COMPLAIN TO
THE POSTMASTER about these messages because the postmaster has no
way of controlling them, and excessive complaints will result in
termination of the list.
For information about this list, including information about the
problem of inappropriate messages and information about how to
unsubscribe, please see the web page at
http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/
===========================================================================
