> Professionals, please help with this question.
> In the game of Blackjack (Las Vegas style) the house is said to have
a
> slight statistical advantage over the average player. Here are the house
rules:
> Dealer must "stand" (no more cards) on 17 or more; Dealer must take a card
if
> Dealer has 16 or less.
> Meanwhile, the player may stand on any two cards or take additional
card
> at any time. The player may also split pairs, may "double down" (double
the bet
> and take one more card only).
> Here is my problem. The Player may choose to play exactly the same
rules
> as the Dealer is REQUIRED to play; or the Player may choose some of the
other
> options. Since the Player has more choices or options in play than does
the
> Dealer, why does the Dealer have the statistical advantage? It seems to
me the
> Player would have the advantage. Can you help? (I have one year of college
> statistics.)
If I recall correctly -
If your hand is still "live" and ties the dealer's, you keep your bet.
But if you bust and then the dealer busts, you lose. That's the asymmetry
that gives the house its odds; and all the other asymmetries in the player's
favor don't cancel it out.
-Robert Dawson
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