On 21 Jan 2002 16:53:31 -0800, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Wuzzy) wrote:

> Pretend you want to see how fat relates to cancer risk
> 
> fat   Kcal    cancer
> 1     2       100
> 2     4       120
> 3     6       130
> 4     8       140
> 5     10      150
> 6     12      160
> 7     14      170
> 8     16      180
> 9     18      190
> 10    20      200
> 
> You have to adjust for KCal, but how is this done, is the following
> the BEST way?

The problem is *nonsense*  as it is stated, 
since fat= KCal   except for the measurement units.

Adjusting A for A',  where A'  is approximately A 
except for irrelevant  measurement error, 
you have essentially nothing left.  Ever.

You always have to be careful when you adjust for 
something that has much correlation, to be sure that
the direction of the logic thoroughly makes sense.
(If there is not much correlation, then there is not 
much change possible in the estimator -- though
a *test*  could become more significant if a bunch
of error variance is accounted for.)

A simple way to "adjust for sex" (for instance), is
to compute  a statistic for each sex separately, 
and then average.  "Within group" is the basic 
idea of adjusting.

[ ... ]
> Is doing a univariate regression between the variable you want to
> adjust for and your predictor the only way to adjust for values as

Univariate?  Absolutely not.  *Multiple*  regression gives 
"partial regression coefficients."       Those  "adjust."

> above?  Studies often cite how they have "adjusted" for KCal, is this
> the way they do it, they usually do not specify the method.

The method is there, ordinarily, in the articles I read.
It is a poor journal (I think..., I estimate blindly ...) that
does not require a statement of that method, but if you
know nothing of regression, etc., you won't recognize
the statement when it appears.
 
-- 
Rich Ulrich, [EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html


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