>    Question:
>
>    If the "winner" of a three way (or more) race fails to get a majority of
>people's votes, yet gets a plurality and is declared the 'winner', is he
>legitmately the people's representative?  What if his other two opponents are
>more similarly inclinded and together represent the majority of voters?
>
>    Is this minority candidate truly the people's voice?

Dear Daniel Davis,

     No!  This is what all this talk of single seat methods is about.

Donald


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