On Sun, 17 Nov 2002 16:11:32 -0800, David Weinshenker <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>> Total amplitude should be the same, though, right? > >Good question... sampling a signal with components of higher frequency >than half the sample rate introduces weird "alias" artifacts; the answer >to your question then becomes "maybe, but you really can't trust it even >that far." A vibration with a frequency that's an exact multiple of the >sample rate might cancel out completely, or appear as a steady high or low >level, for example, depending on the relative phase of the signal frequency >and sample rate. The chug frequency wasn't constant; we heard it changing pitch. I think for reduction purposes we can assume the relationship between the sampling frequency and the oscillation frequency is variable. Given that assumption, aren't the amplitudes pretty much the same over a ~100 msec time scale? -R -- [EMAIL PROTECTED] "The only time an aircraft has too much fuel on board is when it is on fire." -Sir Charles Kingsford Smith _______________________________________________ ERPS-list mailing list [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://lists.erps.org/mailman/listinfo/erps-list
