On 24 January 2014 01:06, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:

>
> On 23 Jan 2014, at 08:57, LizR wrote:
> Everybody loves my baby. Therefore my baby loves my baby. But my baby
> loves nobody but me. Therefore - the only way this can be true - is if
> Alicia *is* her baby. So the answer is yes!
>

> Excellent.
>
> And that was "predicate" logic! So you are in advance!
>

I don't know what predicate logic is (but I watch a lot of TV detective
shows. Perhaps that helps!)

>
> To give a taste of first order logic, it is:
>
> Alicia theory:  (with "Ax" = "for all x").
>
> Ax (x loves MyBaby)     (everybody loves my baby)
> Ax ((MyBaby loves x) -> (x = Me))  (my baby loves nobody but me)
>
> You deduce correctl, in that theory,  that MyBaby = Me, and that everybody
> loves Me. Nice!
>

It seemed to make more sense as a puzzle in English than with symbols!

>
> And now, given that we talk first order logic (the logic with quantifier
> like "A" and "E" (it exists)), I suggest a little meditation on *duality*.
>

Ah, Stephen will be happy :)

>
> Do you agree that the "Ex" in "ExP(x")  (it exists some x such that it is
> the case that P(x)) is a dual of "Ax", in a similar sense that <> is a dual
> of [] in propositional modal logic?
>

...and you lost me completely. OK, I will take a deep breath and try and
break down the problem...

Ex means "some x exists", which is like saying <>x perhaps (in some world,
x is true)
Ax means "for all x" I think which is like saying []x (in all worlds, x is
true)

These seem kind of parallel, except I guess Ex and Ax operate within a
single world, not a "logical multiverse" ? Or do they? (Or does it matter?)

>
> We have defined <>A by ~[]~A. Can we define ExP(x) by ~Ax ~P(x)   ?
>

ExP(x) means that for at least one x, P(x) is true - P(x) is some
proposition regarding x, so if P is "loves" and x is "my baby" ExP(x) would
be "Someone loves my baby"

So ~P(x) is "doesn't love my baby"

So Ax ~P(x) is "Nobody loves my baby"

So ~Ax ~P(x) is "Somebody loves my baby" - which is the same!! :)

So the answer is yes.

>
> Do you agree with the following:
>
> ~[]p   <->   <> ~p
>

p isn't true in all words <-> there is a world in which p is false - yes


> ~<>p   <->   []~p
>

there is not a world in which p is true <-> in all worlds p is false - yes


> []p   <-> ~<>~p
>

p is true in all worlds <-> it isn't true that there is any world in which
p is false - yes (the inverse of the one I did above)

>
> Can you write those equivalence for A and E in predicate logic? Are they
> intuitively valid?
>

~AxP(x) <-> Ex~P(x)

It isn't the case that for all x, P(x) is true ... hence there exists an x
for which P(x) is false

~Ex P(x) <-> Ax ~P(x)

There doesn't exist an x for which P(x) is true ... hence for all x, P(x)
is false

Ax P(x) <-> ~Ex ~P(x)

For all x, P(x) is true ... hence there doesn't exist an x for which P(x)
is false.

>
> Let us come back on modal logic.
>
> The idea of the modal box "[]" is an idea of necessity. The dual (<>) is
> read "possible".
> Can you find the most common english term for the following possible
> modalities:
>
> [] = necessary, <> = possible
> [] = obligatory, <> = ?
>

preferable?


> [] = everywhere, <> = ?
>

somewhere


> [] = always, <> = ?
>

sometime

>
> And what about the most important modality which plays the key role in our
> comp context (and which is the reason why we do all this):
>
> [] = provable, <> = ?
>

possible?

>
> Bruno
>
>
>
> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>
>
>
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