On 21 January 2014 22:29, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:

>
> No, it is all good, Liz!
>
> What about:
>
> (p V q) -> p
>

Using the same formula this is equivalent to(~(p V q) V p), which for (0,1)
is 0, hence not a law.


> and
>
> p -> (p & q)
>

And this is (~p V (p & q)) which is 0 for (1,0), hence also not a law :-)

>
> What about (still in CPL) the question:
>
> is (p & q) -> r equivalent with p -> (q -> r)
>
> is (~(p & q) V r) equal to (~p V (~q V r)) ?

or is

~((p & q) & ~r) equal to ~(p & ~~(q & ~r))

i.e. is

~((p & q) & ~r) equal to ~(p & (q & ~r))

I'm going to take a punt and assume the order in which things are ANDed
together doesn't matter, in which case the above comes out as equal
(equivalent). Did I blow it?



> Oh! You did not answer:
>
> ((COLD & WET) -> ICE)   ->  ((COLD -> ICE) V (WET -> ICE))
>

Eek! That is even more difficult. Luckily you provided something that
didn't involve so much typing...

((p & q) -> r)   ->   ((p -> r) V (q -> r))

Expanding furiously and trying not to make any mistakes...

~((p & q) & ~r) -> ( ~(p & ~r) V ~(q & ~r))

~(~((p & q) & ~r) & ~(~(p & ~r) V ~(q & ~r)))

Um! Assuming for a moment that's correct, we have 8 possible combinations
of values for p,q,r

r = 0 gives 1 (so that's half the values sorted)
r = 1 also gives 1 (so that's the other half)

So assuming I expanded it correctly, it's a law.

I will try more later...

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