On 11 June 2014 11:22, David Nyman <da...@davidnyman.com> wrote:

>
> But I strenuously reject that this is a gratuitous assumption in
> context. In fact, you appeal to the same assumption in your statements
> above. You hypothesise a theory capable of describing and predicting
> mental states entirely on the basis of their correlative 3p phenomena.
> Any such reduction cannot, even (or especially) in principle, say
> anything distinctive about the mental states themselves - the 1p side
> of the correlation. In the very enterprise of reducing them to purely
> 3p terms, *without loss*, it renders itself constitutively incapable
> of accounting for them as distinctively irreducible phenomena in their
> own right and in their own terms. But then the claim that it is
> unreasonable or meaningless to enquire beyond this point, rather than
> erecting some absolute barrier, is in practice a constraint of the
> particular metaphysical posits one has chosen to work within.
>

THAT is what I was trying to say when I said Brent's version looked like
"eliminativism" (i.e. that it had to eliminate consciousness as anything
real!)

Thank God for brainy guys who can spell these things out so my vague hunch
gets a decent airing. (Or rather thank David!)

PS I'm not trying to take any credit for anything here, just saying I had a
vague hunch that was in the same area. You've done all the hard work of
thinking through what it actually implies.

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