On 10/05/2016 10:31 pm, Bruno Marchal wrote:
On 10 May 2016, at 09:00, 'scerir' via Everything List wrote:


    Bruno (I suppose) wrote:
    But in the MWI, some work needs to be done (at least) to
    convince me. I don't even find a paper on the subject, only
    paper which shows that MWI is local (some more rigorous than
    other). Do you have a reference of a paper showing that Bell's
    inequality violation entails non locality in the MWI? I would
    like to take a look on it, if it exists.

    ### W. Myrvold wrote something here
    http://philsci-archive.pitt.edu/11654/ (see ch. 0.8)


Thanks Scerir, but yet again, this paper get the same conclusion as mine (and most people here). With the MWI, non-locality does not imply action-at-a distance. (d'Espagnat would call it non-separability).

There seems to be a degree of terminological confusion surrounding this topic. Non-locality, for me, means that the measurement at A influences the measurement at B. But this influence is not manipulable, so it cannot be used for signalling. In other words, quantum mechanics obeys the standard no-signalling theorems (and is thus consistent with special relativity), while being non-local in the sense that the measurements at A and B are not independent. Call this non-separability if you will -- the terminology should not make any difference, provided we are clear as to what the terms mean.

Bruce


What I look for would be a paper which would show that in the MWI there are action-at-a-distance, like Bruce and John C claim.

I might comment later, as I am late in my scheduling, but will just notice that Gisin's paper (mentionned by Brent) use the non-compatibilist theory of free-will, which makes no-sense to a mechanist. I think Brent concluded similarly.

Bruno

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