Dear Bruno,

in my agnosticism *computationalism* (as so many other 'concepts' and
'processes') is (are?) figments of the human thinking (logic? imagination?
or 'views' how we try to explain the mostly unknowable infinite Entirety)
 - so I cannot argue about it's (their's?) truth???, or fantasy-base
(convolutedness).
Math etc. is in this ballpark.

I have a linguistic version of the Latin origin "to compute":
to put (things) together as by *" C O M "  *and *think* about them in such
way hard *" P U T A R E "  * which may include* quantitative *as well as
qualitative thinking.

John Mikes


On Sat, Aug 6, 2016 at 8:53 AM, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:

>
> On 05 Aug 2016, at 22:02, John Clark wrote:
>
> On Fri, Aug 5, 2016 at 12:36 PM, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:
>
> ​> ​
>> Keep well in mind that I am not arguing for or against computationalism.
>> I assume it, and study the consequences.
>
>
> ​No, y
> ou're assuming at the very start that Computationalism is false and then
> going on from there.
>
>
> That contradicts directly what I did.
>
>
>
> Computationalism means that every subjective experience about you can be
> duplicated by computations made with a physical system.
>
>
> This is fuzzy, but OK. I see what you intend to mean, and I am OK.
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> Not almost everything, EVERYTHING. But then you say:
>
> "*Nothing can duplicate a first person view from its first person point
> of view, with or **without computationalism**.*"
>
> ​
> Computationalism​ says ​intelligent behavior
>
>
> But behavior is 3p.
>
>
> can be duplicated by computations performed by a physical system, and
> Darwin's Theory demands that consciousness is a byproduct of intelligence,
> so your statement contradicts both the meaning of
> Computationalism​ and Evolution.
>
>
> You forget that we distinguish 3p and 1p.
>
> I think you have not yet understood what is a "first person", and still
> less what is the first person as seen by the first person view.
>
> If it was possible to duplicate a first person view in a way such that the
> first person view would notice the duplication, then the guy in M would be
> able to know, in M, if the doppelganger in W (and vice versa) has been
> reconstituted, but again that suppose some telepathy.
>
> The quantum corresponding statement is Everett's famous: the observer does
> not feel the split.
>
> Do you really think that you can distinguish, from an 1p view, the step 3
> WM duplication experience with the experience where you are told that you
> will undergo the step 3 protocol, except that now we lie and we
> reconstitute you only in M? You need something like that to affirm that the
> first person experience can be duplicated *from its own point of view".
>
> BTW, you have given contradictory answer to the question 1 in the same
> week. You are currently inconsistent, so please do the correction needed,
> if you intend to continue to claim that there is no first person
> indeterminacy. If not, you will bring the exact same invalid argument again
> and again. So let us settle this completely, or let us move to step 4.
>
> Bruno
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>  John K Clark
>
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