On 21/11/2017 5:24 pm, [email protected] wrote:
On Monday, November 20, 2017 at 10:50:35 PM UTC-7, Bruce wrote:On 21/11/2017 4:38 pm, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:On Monday, November 20, 2017 at 10:22:44 PM UTC-7, Bruce wrote: On 12/11/2017 4:34 am, John Clark wrote: The title of this thread is about the consistency of Quantum Mechanics, but far more important than QM is the ability of ANY theory to be compatible with experimental results, and one of those experiments shows the violation of Bell's Inequality. And that violation tells us that for ANY theory to be successful at explaining how the world works AT LEAST one of the following properties of that theory must be untrue: 1) Determinism 2) Locality 3) RealismYou have repeated this claim several times, John, but it is not strictly true. Maudlin summarizes it like this: "Early on, Bell's result was often reported as ruling out /determinism/, or /hidden variables/. Nowadays, it is sometimes reported as ruling out, or at least calling in question, /realism/. But these are all mistakes. What Bell's theorem, together with the experimental results, proves to be impossible is not determinism or hidden variables or realism, but /locality, /in a perfectly clear sense/. /What Bell proved, and what theoretical physics has not yet properly absorbed, is that the physical world itself is non-local." Which begs the question; operationally, what does non local mean? AGIt doesn't 'beg the question'! It might raise the question.... Non-local means that disturbing one particle of the singlet influences the other, at a distance and instantaneously. Read Maudlin to find out more about what these terms mean. Bruce There's an ambiguity in English as to what "beg the question" means.
Not really. Look up Wikipedia for /petitio principii/. It is not ambiguous -- just often misused.
I meant it as you say. Does non locality mean the future influences the past as Clark alleged?
No.
Does it mean the non existence of local hidden variables?
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