On Monday, May 21, 2018 at 8:12:11 PM UTC, Brent wrote:
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>
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> On 5/21/2018 11:21 AM, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:
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>
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> On Monday, May 21, 2018 at 5:28:38 PM UTC, Brent wrote: 
>>
>>
>>
>> On 5/20/2018 6:25 PM, [email protected] wrote:
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>> On Monday, May 21, 2018 at 12:22:24 AM UTC, Brent wrote: 
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On 5/20/2018 4:56 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Sunday, May 20, 2018 at 10:35:26 PM UTC, Brent wrote: 
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On 5/20/2018 2:54 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Sunday, May 20, 2018 at 9:13:42 PM UTC, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On 5/20/2018 1:44 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On Sunday, May 20, 2018 at 7:29:42 PM UTC, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On 5/20/2018 3:47 AM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On Sunday, May 20, 2018 at 6:52:41 AM UTC, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On 5/19/2018 8:19 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On Saturday, May 19, 2018 at 3:59:03 PM UTC, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> On 5/18/2018 10:53 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> On Saturday, May 19, 2018 at 5:29:33 AM UTC, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> On 5/18/2018 10:14 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> *So why don't you draw the obvious inference? If those other 
>>>>>>>>> worlds don't exist -- which if I can read English has been your 
>>>>>>>>> passionate 
>>>>>>>>> position all along -- then quantum measurements in this world, the 
>>>>>>>>> only 
>>>>>>>>> world, are statistical and hence NOT reversible in principle. AG*
>>>>>>>>>  
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> but it is different in each branch of the wave function, so 
>>>>>>>>>> reversing this branch does nothing for the others, and does not 
>>>>>>>>>> restore the 
>>>>>>>>>> original superposition. Thus the process is irreversible in 
>>>>>>>>>> principle 
>>>>>>>>>> (nomologically irreversible -- to reverse violates the laws of 
>>>>>>>>>> physics).
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> *But if those other worlds don't exist, it makes no sense whatever 
>>>>>>>>> to rely on them to establish irreversible in principle in this world 
>>>>>>>>> (as 
>>>>>>>>> distinguished from statistically irreversible or irreversible FAPP). 
>>>>>>>>> It 
>>>>>>>>> seems you want to have it both ways; that many worlds really don't 
>>>>>>>>> exist. 
>>>>>>>>> but quantum measurements in this world are irreversible in principle 
>>>>>>>>> due 
>>>>>>>>> the existence of many worlds. AG*
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> You don't handle uncertainty well, do you.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Brent
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> You know, it's not a perfect analogy, but I don't believe that when 
>>>>>>>> I pull the one arm bandit with 64 million possible outcomes, that 64 
>>>>>>>> million (minus one) worlds are created, each with an identical copy of 
>>>>>>>> me, 
>>>>>>>> getting those other outcomes. What do you believe? AG
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> I believe I'll wait for a better theory.  One that includes gravity 
>>>>>>>> and spacetime and consciousness.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Brent
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> I see. But you seem too ready to defend the MWI when it appears to 
>>>>>>> imply irreversible in principle. Or do you accept Bruce's claim that 
>>>>>>> the 
>>>>>>> projection operator implies irreversible in principle? AG 
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Either of them implies irreversiblity.  Whether it is "in principle" 
>>>>>>> depends on what principle you invoke, mathematics, practice, ...?  MWI 
>>>>>>> puts 
>>>>>>> information in orthogonal subspaces where we exist in copies such that 
>>>>>>> each 
>>>>>>> copy can act only in one subspace and hence cannot put together the 
>>>>>>> information from other subspaces.  A projection operator is just a 
>>>>>>> mathematical model of this confinement to one subspace.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Brent
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Please; no evasive games. We can forget about the MWI, given its 
>>>>>> absurdity. Does, or does not the projection operator imply 
>>>>>> irreversibility 
>>>>>> in principle as Bruce claims?  AG
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Sure, a projection operator throws away information so its action is 
>>>>>> irreversible.  If I project a star onto the celestial sphere I preserve 
>>>>>> its 
>>>>>> longitude and latitude, but it doesn't show how far away it is.  That's 
>>>>>> why 
>>>>>> the MWI advocates say projection conflicts with all the rest of 
>>>>>> fundamental 
>>>>>> physics which is described by evolution that is at least reversible in 
>>>>>> the 
>>>>>> mathematical sense.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Brent
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> But how do you know that the projection operator represents an actual 
>>>>> physical process? It could be just a bookkeeping device to describe the 
>>>>> fact that when many possible outcomes are possible, we get a particular 
>>>>> outcome. 
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Exactly.  The quantum Bayesian take this view 
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> How does "Baysian" fit into this picture? Can't one interpret the SWE 
>>>> as a representation of what we know about a system, without being a 
>>>> Baysian? AG
>>>>   
>>>>
>>>>> and consider Schroedinger's equation also as a personal book keeping 
>>>>> device of what one knows about a system and then the Born rule and 
>>>>> projection operators fit neatly into the scheme of updating one's 
>>>>> personal 
>>>>> knowledge.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I would delete "personal" from your comment. We're referring to the 
>>>> knowledge of any observer. AG 
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> ISTM, that to argue for "irreversible in principle", it is 
>>>>> insufficient to appeal solely to the properties of the projection 
>>>>> operator. 
>>>>> AG
>>>>>
>>>>> Exactly what led to Everett, MWI, and decoherence theory.  But at the 
>>>>> price of having multiple, orthogonal "worlds" to explain the appearance 
>>>>> of 
>>>>> randomness.  Of course some people hate randomness and are quite happy to 
>>>>> have multiple worlds instead.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Looks like I am in the decoherence camp; namely, that when a quantum 
>>>> measurement occurs, entanglements with reservoir states somehow suppresses 
>>>> all outcomes but one
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> But that "somehow" is the magic of the Copenhagen interpretation.  
>>>> Decoherence is the process of making subspaces (worlds) orthogonal, but it 
>>>> doesn't choose one and "suppress" (vanish?) the others.  The all continue 
>>>> to exist and to be orthogonal,.
>>>>
>>>
>>> There's no magic; just an unknown process that allows one result and not 
>>> others.  
>>>
>>>
>>> Right.  And there have been some serious proposals for that process, 
>>> like Penrose's gravitational metric difference.
>>>
>>> That the other subspaces continue to exist and are orthogonal and 
>>> inaccessible, is the result of imposing the projection operator. 
>>>
>>>
>>> No.  The SE causes them to evolve into orthogonal subspaces, no 
>>> projection operator required.  That's what Everett showed to be a 
>>> consequence of treating the instruments and the observer all as quantum 
>>> systems.  
>>>
>>
>> How can the SE do that without a measurement? IIUC, the probability 
>> amplitudes just keep evolving in time absent a measurement. No measurement; 
>> no orthogonal subspaces. I think they come about due to the projection 
>> operator, a housekeeping device. AG 
>>
>>
>> That's the problem decoherence solved.  It doesn't have to be a 
>> "measurement" in the sense of someone seeing the result.  That's the lesson 
>> of the buckyball two-slit experiment.
>>
>
> I'm OK with getting rid of the projection operator. Are you now claiming 
> information is lost or inaccessible in these orthogonal subspaces and 
> therefore quantum measurements cannot be reversed? 
>
>
> They are inaccessible to the people of any one world of the MWI.  
>

There you go again! Listen; I want to determine whether quantum 
measurements are reversible, so I don't accept arguments based on 
interpretations neither of us believe in. Can you do better without 
appealing to the projection operator?  AG

>
> I'm confused as to where we are in this discussion. AG 
>
>>
>>
>>> IOW, I conjecture that the founders of quantum theory made it an 
>>> irreversible in principle theory without sufficient reasons. AG
>>>
>>>
>>> Well, they thought the fact that they observed their lab notes didn't 
>>> reverse themselves was a sufficient reason.
>>>
>>
>> The lab notes showed they got a measurement; a single measurement. So 
>> they added the projection operator to account for that. Nothing firm about 
>> irreversible in principle AFAICT. AG
>>
>>
>> Again you casually use the pharse "in principle" with saying what 
>> principle.
>>
>
> I don't have to since "irreversible in principle" means there is no 
> physical process which allows the measurement to be reversed. 
>
>
> OK, then you've qualified it to mean nomologically irreversible...but 
> still logically (mathematically) reversible.
>

I consulted several dictionaries and still don't understand the word. Above 
my pay grade I suppose. As for mathematically reversible, are we playing 
the movie backward again? I am interested in the physical reality, not some 
equation that tells me a measurement is reversible if it isn't!  AG 

>
> Brent
>

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