On Friday, June 8, 2018 at 12:32:18 AM UTC, Bruce wrote:
>
> From: <[email protected] <javascript:>>
>
>
> On Thursday, June 7, 2018 at 11:32:23 AM UTC, Bruce wrote: 
>>
>> From: <[email protected]>
>>
>>
>> On Tuesday, June 5, 2018 at 3:05:40 AM UTC, Bruce wrote: 
>>>
>>> From: <[email protected]>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Tuesday, June 5, 2018 at 1:18:29 AM UTC, Bruce wrote: 
>>>>
>>>> From: <[email protected]>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Remember that the analysis I have given above is schematic, 
>>>> representing the general progression of unitary evolution. It is not 
>>>> specific to any particular case, or any particular number of possible 
>>>> outcomes for the experiment.
>>>>
>>>> Bruce
>>>>
>>>> *OK. For economy we can write,  ** (|+>|e+> + |->|e->),  where e 
>>>> stands for the entire universe other than the particle whose spin is being 
>>>> measured. What is the status of the interference between the terms in this 
>>>> superposition? For a quantum superposition to make sense, there must be 
>>>> interference between the terms in the sum. At least that's my 
>>>> understanding 
>>>> of the quantum principle of superposition. But the universe excluding the 
>>>> particle being measured seems to have no definable wave length; hence, I 
>>>> don't see that this superposition makes any sense in how superposition is 
>>>> applied. Would appreciate your input on this issue. TIA, AG*
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> A superposition is just a sum of vectors in Hilbert space. If these 
>>>> vectors are orthogonal there is no interference between them. Your quest 
>>>> for a wavelength in every superposition is the wrong way to look at 
>>>> things. 
>>>> Macroscopic objects have vanishingly small deBroglie wavelengths, but the 
>>>> can still be represented as vectors in a HIlbert space, so can still form 
>>>> superpositions. I think you are looking for absolute classicality in 
>>>> quantum phenomena -- that is impossible, by definition.
>>>>
>>>> Bruce
>>>>
>>>
>>> *If that's the case, why all the fuss about Schrodinger's cat? AG*
>>>
>>>
>>> Is there a fuss about Schrödinger's cat? Whatever fuss there is, is not 
>>> about the possibility of a superposition of live and dead cats. It is about 
>>> choosing the correct basis in which to describe the physical situation. The 
>>> Schrödinger equation does not specify a basis, and that is its main 
>>> drawback. In fact, that observation alone is sufficient to sink the naive 
>>> many-worlds enthusiast -- he doesn't know in which basis the multiplication 
>>> of worlds occurs.
>>>
>>> Bruce
>>>
>>
>> * Interesting point. Do you mean that if one solved the SE for some 
>> standard quantum problem (nothing fancy, no decoherence modeled), one can 
>> generally expand the solution in different bases, say p, E, or x, and each 
>> expansion would imply a different set of worlds using the MWI?  Are there 
>> other bases besides these three? I'm thinking there could be an infinite 
>> set of basis vectors since, by analogy, IIUC, for the simple 2-dimensional 
>> vector space of "little pointy things", I think every pair of non co-linear 
>> vectors could form a basis (so most bases are not orthogonal). AG*
>>
>>
>> There are an indefinite number of possible sets of basis vectors in any 
>> Hilbert space. Think of the 2-dimensional space for a spin half particle -- 
>> one can form a set of orthonormal basis vectors for every direction in the 
>> 3-sphere. Different bases are not different observables such as p, E, or x. 
>> Each such observable has its own Hilbert space and an infinite set of 
>> possible bases. Each set of basis vectors is just a linearly independent 
>> set of sums over some other basis. It is easier to visualize this in the 
>> case of a simple linear vector space. Think of 3-dimensional Euclidean 
>> space. You can choose a set of three axes, but these can be rotated into 
>> any direction. Or linear combinations can be formed that are not 
>> necessarily orthogonal. For physical situations in QM, some bases are more 
>> useful than others, but the choice of basis is by no means unique.
>>
>> Bruce
>>
>
> *OK. I understand your comments .But let me rephrase the issues as I 
> conflated some of them above. In the spin half case, were you claiming that 
> each orientation of the SG device implies a different world according to 
> the MWI, and if so, does the MWI make no sense since the SWE does not 
> indicate which orientation is in play?*
>
>
> The SWE does not give a preferred basis. Basing MWI on the Schrödinger 
> equation runs into the basis problem. Few MWI advocates actually take this 
> seriously. And they should.
>
> * In this situation, what is the role of the SWE since the wf is usually 
> asserted without any reference to it? Now consider a general case where the 
> wf for a system is determined using the SWE. Since the solution can be 
> expanded using difference bases, say E or p, does each possible expansion, 
> each implying a different possible set of measurements, imply a different 
> set of worlds using the SWE? TIA, AG*
>
>
> The Schrödinger equation merely gives the time evolution of the system. To 
> define the problem you have to specify a wave function. It is in the 
> expansion of this wave function in terms of a set of possible eigenvalues 
> that the preferred basis problem arises. So it is not really down to the SE 
> itself, it is a matter for the wave function. Each expansion basis defines 
> a set of worlds, and all bases give different worlds.
>
> Bruce
>

*The answer to how one derives the 1/2 spin states from the SWE was 
answered by Laurence on the thread "Role of Schrodinger's equation for spin 
1/2 particles", where he used the Dirac equation (better than S's equation 
insofar as it's covariant). I've seen it before, in another galaxy, a long 
long time ago. Now, clearly, each spin measurement surely does represent a 
different world from any other measurement with a different orientation. 
This surely puts the dagger in the heart of the claim that the SWE 
specifies the Many Worlds of the MWI. AG*

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