On Sunday, November 4, 2018 at 3:01:50 PM UTC, Philip Thrift wrote:
>
>
>
> On Sunday, November 4, 2018 at 7:27:12 AM UTC-6, [email protected] 
> wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>> On Sunday, November 4, 2018 at 1:05:36 AM UTC, Philip Thrift wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Saturday, November 3, 2018 at 6:21:18 PM UTC-5, [email protected] 
>>> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Saturday, November 3, 2018 at 9:33:54 PM UTC, Philip Thrift wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On Saturday, November 3, 2018 at 3:50:30 PM UTC-5, [email protected] 
>>>>> wrote:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On Thursday, November 1, 2018 at 11:22:46 PM UTC, Pierz wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On Monday, October 15, 2018 at 9:40:39 PM UTC+11, 
>>>>>>> [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> On Sunday, October 14, 2018 at 5:08:42 PM UTC, smitra wrote:
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> On 14-10-2018 15:24, [email protected] wrote: 
>>>>>>>>> > In a two state system, such as a qubit, what forces the 
>>>>>>>>> interpretation 
>>>>>>>>> > that the system is in both states simultaneously before 
>>>>>>>>> measurement, 
>>>>>>>>> > versus the interpretation that we just don't what state it's in 
>>>>>>>>> before 
>>>>>>>>> > measurement? Is the latter interpretation equivalent to Einstein 
>>>>>>>>> > Realism? And if so, is this the interpretation allegedly 
>>>>>>>>> falsified by 
>>>>>>>>> > Bell experiments? AG 
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> It is indeed inconsistent with QM itself as Bell has shown. 
>>>>>>>>> Experiments 
>>>>>>>>> have later demonstrated that the Bell inequalities are violated in 
>>>>>>>>> precisely the way predicted by QM.  This then rules out local 
>>>>>>>>> hidden 
>>>>>>>>> variables, therefore the information about the outcome of a 
>>>>>>>>> measurement 
>>>>>>>>> is not already present locally in the environment. 
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Saibal 
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> What puzzles me is this; why would the Founders assume that a 
>>>>>>>> system in a superposition is in all component states simultaneously -- 
>>>>>>>> contradicting the intuitive appeal of Einstein realism -- when that 
>>>>>>>> assumption is not used in calculating probabilities (since the 
>>>>>>>> component 
>>>>>>>> states are orthogonal)? AG 
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> I think because of interference. Consider the paradigmatic double 
>>>>>>> slit, with the single electron going through it. It sure looks like the 
>>>>>>> electron was in two place at once, doesn't it?
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> *Yes, that's my assessment how the erroneous interpretation took 
>>>>>> hold, but only if you restrict yourself to the particle interpretation. 
>>>>>> If 
>>>>>> the electron travels as a wave, it can go through both slits 
>>>>>> simultaneously 
>>>>>> and interfere with itself. This is my preferred interpretation; the only 
>>>>>> one that makes sense. AG*
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I'm not sure what you mean by "that assumption is not used in 
>>>>>>> calculating probabilities". 
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> *If the operator whose eigenvalues are being measured has a well 
>>>>>> defined mathematical form -- e.g., not like |alive> -- it has specific 
>>>>>> eigenvectors and eigenvalues, and the state function can be written as 
>>>>>> superposition of these eigenvectors. It can be shown that eigenvectors 
>>>>>> with 
>>>>>> distinct eigenvalues are orthogonal, meaning the Kronecker delta applies 
>>>>>> to 
>>>>>> their mutual inner products. Therefore, to calculate the probability of 
>>>>>> observing a particular eigenvalue, one must take the inner product of 
>>>>>> the 
>>>>>> wf with the eigenvector which has that eigenvalue. Due to the 
>>>>>> orthogonality, all terms drop out except for the term in the 
>>>>>> superposition 
>>>>>> which contains the eigenvector whose eigenvalue you want to measure. As 
>>>>>> you 
>>>>>> should see, there is nothing in this process of calculating 
>>>>>> probabilities 
>>>>>> that in any way implies, assumes, or uses, the concept that the system 
>>>>>> is 
>>>>>> simultaneously in ALL component states of the superposition (written as 
>>>>>> a 
>>>>>> sum of eigenvectors). AG*
>>>>>>  
>>>>>>
>>>>>>> If you take a sum-over-histories approach it's explicitly assumed 
>>>>>>> the electron went via all possible paths.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> *I don't know that method, but offhand POSSIBLE PATHS might have 
>>>>>> nothing to do with, and possibly independent of SUPERPOSITIONS OF STATE. 
>>>>>> AG*
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I don't see what the orthogonality of the basis vectors (and hence 
>>>>>>> component states) has to do with the question of interpretation of 
>>>>>>> superposition. 
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> *Explained in detail above. AG*
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Clearly the system will be measured in only one state, and this is 
>>>>>>> what the orthogonal vectors represent. However the quantum state itself 
>>>>>>> typically spans more than one dimension of the vector space - that's 
>>>>>>> what a 
>>>>>>> superposition is. However I think when physicists say that the 
>>>>>>> superposition is in all states simultaneously, it's only in a manner of 
>>>>>>> speaking - a way of conveying the mathematical situation in natural 
>>>>>>> language that is inherently classical. 
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> *It's a totally misleading way to discuss the quantum 
>>>>>> superpositions.  Even classically, say for the vector space of "little 
>>>>>> pointy things" in a plane, each vector can be expressed in uncountably 
>>>>>> many 
>>>>>> bases, both orthogonal and non-orthogonal. So to claim that one basis is 
>>>>>> somehow preferred, and the vector being expressed as a sum or 
>>>>>> superposition 
>>>>>> in that basis, is simultaneously in all components of that particular 
>>>>>> basis, make no sense whatsoever. AG*
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Reading Born's exchange of letters with Einstein (I'm proud to say 
>>>>>>> Born was my great grandfather), it's clear that Born had a conception 
>>>>>>> of QM 
>>>>>>> that was still very realistic in the Einstein sense. Though they 
>>>>>>> disagreed 
>>>>>>> significantly and somewhat heatedly, Born still seems to have regarded 
>>>>>>> QM 
>>>>>>> probabilities as classical probabilities in disguise.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> *Einstein realism seems to have been falsified due to Bell 
>>>>>> experiments. If that's the case, it would mean that BEFORE measurement 
>>>>>> of a 
>>>>>> quantum system, it is not only NOT in all states of a superposition 
>>>>>> simultaneously for the reasons I have argued (nothing to do with Bell), 
>>>>>> but 
>>>>>> ALSO has no local preexisting value. AG*
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I don't think he would ever have endorsed the notion that a particle 
>>>>>>> is truly in all of the states of the superposition simultaneously. 
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> *Thanks for your input. AG *
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> The (complex-number-weighted) "path"s of the path integral 
>>>>> (sum-over-histories) formulation are all that are needed to define 
>>>>> superpositions. 
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> *Can you flesh that out? How can complex numbers be weighted and result 
>>>> in superpositions? AG*
>>>>
>>>> "Einstein realism" is restored if *retrocausality* (the path futures 
>>>>> can *stochastically* influence the path pasts) is allowed.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> *I don't believe it. I think it has hugely absurd implications. AG *
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> - pt
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>> The paths (histories) in a path integral (sum over histories) 
>>> formulation have complex numbers assigned to them. (That's their 
>>> "weights".) 
>>>
>>>
>>> http://muchomas.lassp.cornell.edu/8.04/Lecs/lec_FeynmanDiagrams/node3.html
>>>
>>> The Feynman formulation of Quantum Mechanics builds three central ideas 
>>> from the de Broglie hypothesis into the computation of quantum amplitudes: 
>>> the probabilistic aspect of nature, superposition, and the classical limit. 
>>> This is done by making the following three three postulates:
>>>
>>>
>>>    1. *Events in nature are probabilistic with predictable 
>>>    probabilities P.*
>>>    2. *The probability P for an event to occur is given by the square 
>>>    of the complex magnitude of a quantum amplitude for the event, Q. The 
>>>    quantum amplitude Q associated with an event is the sum of the 
>>>    amplitudes [image: tex2html_wrap_inline1605] associated with every 
>>> history 
>>>    leading to the event.*
>>>    3. *The quantum amplitude associated with a given history [image: 
>>>    tex2html_wrap_inline1605] is the product of the amplitudes [image: 
>>>    tex2html_wrap_inline1609] associated with each fundamental process in 
>>> the 
>>>    history.*
>>>
>>> ...
>>>
>>> Postulate (2) specifies how probabilities are to be computed. This item 
>>> builds the concept of superposition, and thus the possibility of quantum 
>>> interference, directly into the formulation. Specifying that the 
>>> probability for an event is given as the magnitude-squared of a sum* 
>>> made from complex numbers*, allows for negative, positive and 
>>> intermediate interference effects. This part of the formulation thus builds 
>>> the description of experiments such as the two-slit experiment directly 
>>> into the formulation. A *history* is a *sequence* of fundamental 
>>> processes leading to the the event in question. We now have an explicit 
>>> formulation for calculating the probabilities for events in terms of the 
>>> [image: 
>>> tex2html_wrap_inline1605] , quantum amplitudes for individual 
>>> histories, which the third postulate will now specify.
>>> ...
>>>
>>> - pt
>>>
>>
>> *Thanks for that. I have a few basic questions about Feynman's 
>> path-integral formulation of QM. Firstly, IIUC, Bruce wrote that Feynman 
>> initially believed in a particle-only formulation of QM. but later realized 
>> this was not possible. Is this true or false? Personally, as I wrote above, 
>> I don't see how a particle-only theory of slit experiments makes any sense. 
>> Only using a wave model can we imagine that the "particle" goes through 
>> both slits simultaneously to produce interference. Secondly, in his 
>> particle only, or path integral formulation, how does he choose which paths 
>> to use, given that there exists an uncountable number of direct paths, and 
>> an uncountable number of paths which loop, go backward, then forward, and 
>> so on. How does he choose which paths to use? Thirdly, how does he define a 
>> "fundamental process", which is required to define a "history"? TIA, AG*
>>
>
>
> This has been written about by the late Victor J. Stenger, Huw Price, Ken 
> Wharton, ... and me, of course.
>
> All are some sort of reification of Feynman paths. 
>
> There is the zig-zag particle that goes back and forth in time 
> ("eventually"going through both slits). There is the reflective path 
> integral (paths in one time direction mirrored with paths going in the 
> opposite time direction), etc.
>
> - pt
>

*Seems like a desperate grasping at straws. How does Feynman choose which 
paths to use, or are all equally required for the theory to make correct 
predictions? AG*

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