On Fri, Aug 16, 2019 at 4:43 PM smitra <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
The orthogonality can be rigorously proved as follows. If we have a single particle incident on the two slits described by a time dependent wave function psi(x,t) = 1/sqrt(2) [A(x,t) + B(x,t)] such that at A(x,0) is nonzero at one slit and B(x,0) at the other slit, then A(x,0) and B(x,0) are obviously orthogonal.
Don't you mean "...such that at A(x,0) is /*zero*/ at one slit and B(x,0) at the other slit, then A(x,0) and B(x,0) are obviously orthogonal." Simply being non-zero at the alternate slits won't make them orthogonal.
But of course they are not zero at either . Brent -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To view this discussion on the web visit https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/everything-list/7793342b-b661-7500-cddc-75cf23a8ddd6%40verizon.net.
