On 19-08-2019 04:06, 'Brent Meeker' via Everything List wrote:
On Fri, Aug 16, 2019 at 4:43 PM smitra <[email protected]> wrote:
The orthogonality can be rigorously proved as follows. If we have a
single particle incident on the two slits described by a time
dependent
wave function psi(x,t) = 1/sqrt(2) [A(x,t) + B(x,t)] such that at
A(x,0)
is nonzero at one slit and B(x,0) at the other slit, then A(x,0)
and
B(x,0) are obviously orthogonal.
Don't you mean "...such that at A(x,0) is _ZERO_ at one slit and
B(x,0) at the other slit, then A(x,0) and
B(x,0) are obviously orthogonal." Simply being non-zero at the
alternate slits won't make them orthogonal.
But of course they are not zero at either .
That's right, the overlap will then be zero.
Saibal
--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
"Everything List" group.
To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email
to [email protected].
To view this discussion on the web visit
https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/everything-list/4a98802ab9cbb44e203661071ce8d974%40zonnet.nl.
