--- In [email protected], Peter Sutphen <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > An unenlightened person looks at an enlightened person > and they appear to have desires. They talk, they move, > they eat food, they do this and that, they prefer one > thing over another.
What is it that is actually driving the speach, movements, eating? And when there are preferences, why is one thing preferred over another? If an answer is Brahman then does Brahman have a sense of "I"?. Rick Carlstrom In fact from the behavioral level > there is no difference between the unenlightened and > the enlightened. But the enlightened person is not > "there" in the way the unenlightened person believes > themselves to be. There is no sense of "I" or "mine" > in the enlightened person. There is no subjective > "self" that sees itself as "me" or "I" . That just > goes in enlightenment. The best an enlightened person > can say is that they are "nothing." They aren't there > in they way an unenlightened person believes they are > there. There is no personal identity or self in > enlightenment. The mind can't understand this because > it confounds a sense of individual self with > consciousness. The two have no relationship what so > ever. A personal self is a product of consciousness > projecting into mind and experiencing itself as bound. > > To subscribe, send a message to: [EMAIL PROTECTED] Or go to: http://groups.yahoo.com/group/FairfieldLife/ and click 'Join This Group!' Yahoo! Groups Links <*> To visit your group on the web, go to: http://groups.yahoo.com/group/FairfieldLife/ <*> To unsubscribe from this group, send an email to: [EMAIL PROTECTED] <*> Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to: http://docs.yahoo.com/info/terms/
