--- In [email protected], TurquoiseB <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> --- In [email protected], "sparaig" <sparaig@> wrote:
> > --- In [email protected], Rick Archer 
<fairfieldlife@> 
> > wrote:
> > > on 2/3/06 5:49 PM, TurquoiseB at [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
> > > > 
> > > > Even then (mid-70s), they had convinced themselves
> > > > that they were so "in tune" with "Natural Law" that
> > > > they had the right to violate actual law.
> > > 
> > > I often got the feeling from Maharishi, and recent speeches 
> > > seem to reflect this, that he didn't have much respect for 
> > > the level of intelligence that formulated man-made laws. 
> > > He considered man-made laws legitimate and worthy
> > > of his obedience to the degree that they conformed to 
> > > Natural Law, and he considered his own desires and intentions 
> > > to be a perfect expression of Natural Law. Thus, if a man-
> > > made law didn't jibe with his desire, he considered it a 
> > > misguided hindrance to his higher purpose and had no qualms
> > > about violating it.
> > 
> > A perfectly valid attitude for someone enlightened...
> 
> Is it?  Or were you just *taught* that, by example?

Well, unless one were oneself enlightened, of course,
the only way one would have that idea is if one heard
it from someone or saw it in their behavior, right?
So "Is it?" is a bogus question, unless you're assuming
Lawson is enlightened.

(BTW, "taught" in this and other similar contexts is a
weasel word, selected for the purpose of loading the
argument.)

> Such behavior is, after all, *also* seen in megalo-
> maniacs and in people with extreme narcissism.  Is
> it "valid" in their cases?  I'd really like to hear
> your answer to that question.

Lawson specified that it was valid *in the case of
someone who is enlightened*.  Why should that also
apply to megalomaniacs and people with extreme
narcissism?  It's another bogus question.

> The thing is, charlatans have been getting away with
> shit for millennia by claiming that they are "above"
> the requirements imposed on "lesser" men.  But are
> they?

Again, why should what applies to the enlightened,
as specified by Lawson, be taken also to apply to
charlatans?  Nothing in what Lawson said suggests
such a thing.

> In Maharishi's case, he convinces people such
> as Bob that he's in tune with something he calls 
> "Natural Law," which of course only he is evolved
> enough to perceive and define.  Because Bob has been
> programmed to believe such declarations, he cuts 
> Maharishi a great deal of slack when he does things
> that are questionable or even outright illegal.

First, "programmed" is another weasel word chosen for
the purpose of loading the argument.  There are lots
of reasons why people believe certain things, only
one of which is that they have been "programmed" to
believe them--as opposed to, say, making one's own
observations, carefully reflecting on them on the
basis of one's experience and understanding, and
arriving at a conclusion based on those reflections.

Second, MMY has made no such "declarations," at 
least not that I'm aware, nor has anyone here said
he has.  Impressions are what are being cited in
this discussion.

> But the tyrants and the narcissistic maniacs of the 
> world also took the same stand.  *They* justified
> their behavior by claiming they were "above" the law
> and reported to a "higher authority." 

True enough.  So the issue is whether one believes
a person who does not act according to the law
(remember, there are no "stands" or "claims"
involved in MMY's case, just the impressions of
others as to why he says and does certain things)
is a tyrant or a narcissistic maniac, or a person
who is enlightened.

Lawson didn't offer an opinion on whether MMY was
enlightened, of course.  He said merely that *if*
a person was enlightened, it was valid for them
to consider themselves above the law.

It's perfectly reasonable to believe that an
enlightened person is *not* above the law.  But the
fact that tyrants and maniacs also claim they're
above the law is not a sound basis for such a
belief.  In fact, it's irrelevant; it's a version
of the guilt-by-association fallacy.

> For me, the bottom line is that the moment anyone --
> anyone -- makes this claim, it's time to step back
> and make a determination about whether you feel they 
> are sane.

Well, of course it is, nor did Lawson say anything to
the contrary, unless you assume that an enlightened
person may also be insane (a whole 'nother can of
worms).  Otherwise, the determination is whether
they're insane, or enlightened.  I suspect no one
here disagrees that if a person who makes such a
claim is not enlightened, then they're very likely
insane.

(One possible factor, among others, in making such a
determination might be whether the person in question
actually makes a declaration that they are justified
in breaking the law because they're enlightened.  It
seems to me that making an announcement to that effect
would put some weight on the "insane" side--although,
of course, *not* making that announcement wouldn't
guarantee that they're not insane.)






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