> > ...one would expect the phrase to occur in the Maharishi's 
> > commentary on the Gita and in the Vedanta texts cited by 
> > Shankara, would one not?
> >
Vaj wrote:
> I would expect a true advatin text to NOT include samadhi.
>
Maybe so, but you didn't explain Maharishi's comment about samadhi:
Samadhi is transcendental conciousness, a state of Yoga, which serves
as the means to the ultimate state of cosmic conciousness, a state in
which transcendental conciousness has become permanently grounded,
that is, nitya samadhi. The question is, why would a Vedantin be
making any comments on Yoga at all or, for that matter, why would Lord
Krishna be making any statements about Yoga? Yoga isn't mentioned in
the Rig Veda but the word samadhi is used by Shakya in the Eightfold
Path in his First Sermon. Go figure.

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