Prof. Olson writes:
> There is a US Supreme Court case from the 1950's that says that the Bill
> of Rights trumps ALL of the original Constitution, including the treaty
> clause.  I think it is Reid v. Covert.   ...

  An amendment necessarily trumps the amended document (which then
becomes "the document-as-amended".  Is it clear that an amendment limits
the effect of a ratified treaty? 
  
  Article II Section 2 - "[The President] shall have Power, by and with
the Advice and Consent of the Senate, to make Treaties, provided two
thirds of the Senators present concur;" doesn't really say.

  I've heard many times that the treaty trumps the Constitution. So I
looked for more information - the first reference I read:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reid_v._Covert is interesting. So I went on
and read a bit more:

http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/historics/USSC_CR_0354_0001_ZS.html
and it's not clear to me that the decision was so broad since it is only
about a military case.  

  The decision does say, "This Court has regularly and uniformly
recognized the supremacy of the Constitution over a treaty." That's
clear, but then the decision weasels, "We recognize that executive
agreements are involved here, but it cannot be contended that such an
agreement rises to greater stature than a treaty." in a footnote.
http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/historics/USSC_CR_0354_0001_ZO.html

  After all this, I'm a bit confused as to whether a ratified Treaty
dominates or is subordinate to the US Constitution. I'm not helped by
Article VI, clause 2, "This Constitution, and the Laws of the United
States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made,
or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall
be the supreme Law of the Land;" in which Treaties are mentioned - and
the order of mention might, or might not, indicate precedence in case of
a conflict.
-- 
--henry schaffer
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