This paragraph (for whatever reason) makes progress toward my counter-argument 
AGAINST both Monod-via-Grant and Wagner-via-Jenny.  While it may be true that 
mutation is necessary for innovation, it's insufficient to claim that 
innovation comes only through mutation.  Imagine two point mutations on 
different genes, in different individuals, neither of which (for now) produce a 
phenotype change (ala "neutral networks").  Then those individuals go on to 
reproduce for a few generations, passing along their respective mutations, 
never seeing a phenotypic change in their lineages.  But them the two lineages 
mingle to produce an offspring with both mutations, where the 2 mutations 
together produce a phenotypic change.

Can we truly say that the crossover had nothing to do with the "innovation" ... 
that it only preserved the innovation and the mutation caused it?  A neutral 
mutation can't be considered an "innovation", right?

On 08/11/2017 09:05 PM, Steven A Smith wrote:
> Yes, a "mutation" to the genome is a change in one or more letters of the 
> code.   A "mutation" in the metabolic processes implied by said genetic 
> sequence (a changed protein, a modified level of production of an unmodified 
> protein or set of same, etc.) and ultimately in the mature phenotype (if the 
> precursors to this are viable enough for a mature specimen to arrive?) and 
> beyond that the larger social unit (herd/pack/tribe) that might benefit or 
> suffer from the behaviour of the individual experiencing the mutation. Add 
> individuals with a mutation in their bone-production that causes extremely 
> large cross-section bones and thick crania into the Vikings and you get (what 
> has been hypothesized to be) Berserker warriors who drop into a blind rage 
> when their blood pressure rises in response to threat.  As long as they are 
> pointing *toward* the enemy when that happens, it is (maybe) highly 
> functional for the group to have you around?


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